module 4 n.
Download
Skip this Video
Loading SlideShow in 5 Seconds..
MODULE 4 PowerPoint Presentation
Download Presentation
MODULE 4

Loading in 2 Seconds...

play fullscreen
1 / 105

MODULE 4 - PowerPoint PPT Presentation


  • 110 Views
  • Uploaded on

MODULE 4. PHARMACOLOGY AND BIOPHARMACEUTICS. A drug that causes significant delay in the absorption of acetaminophen by reducing the rate of gastric emptying:. Anticholinergic Digoxin. c. Levodopa d. Propantheline. 2. Histabloc ® is a:. H1 agonist H1 antagonist . c. H2 agonist

loader
I am the owner, or an agent authorized to act on behalf of the owner, of the copyrighted work described.
capcha
Download Presentation

PowerPoint Slideshow about 'MODULE 4' - thina


An Image/Link below is provided (as is) to download presentation

Download Policy: Content on the Website is provided to you AS IS for your information and personal use and may not be sold / licensed / shared on other websites without getting consent from its author.While downloading, if for some reason you are not able to download a presentation, the publisher may have deleted the file from their server.


- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - E N D - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
Presentation Transcript
module 4

MODULE 4

PHARMACOLOGY AND BIOPHARMACEUTICS

slide2
A drug that causes significant delay in the absorption of acetaminophen by reducing the rate of gastric emptying:
  • Anticholinergic
  • Digoxin
  • c. Levodopa
  • d. Propantheline
2 histabloc is a
2. Histabloc® is a:
  • H1 agonist
  • H1 antagonist
  • c. H2 agonist
  • d. H2 antagonist
  • Histabloc is Famotidine (H2 antagonist)
3 schilling test is used for the detection of
3. Schilling test is used for the detection of:
  • Pernicious anemia
  • Megaloblastic anemia
  • Iron deficiency anemia
  • Folate deficiency

Pernicious anemia is caused by loss of gastric parietal cells, and subsequent inability to absorb vitamin B12.

Megaloblastic anemia is an anemia (of macrocytic classification) that results from inhibition of DNA synthesis in red blood cell production.

4 ambenonium neostigmine and pyridostigmine are most commonly used for which condition
4. Ambenonium, Neostigmine, and Pyridostigmine are most commonly used for which condition:

c. Bronchial asthma

d. COPD

  • Atropine overdose
  • Myasthenia gravis
  • Tacrine, Donepezil, Rivastigmine and Galantamine, all of which are anticholinesterase are indicated for Alzheimer’s Disease
slide6

5. A new drug is currently being developed whose mechanism of action is stimulation of the beta-3 receptors. In which condition will this drug have most likely usefulness?

  • Obesity
  • Bronchial asthma
  • c. shock
  • d. Acute Renal failure
  • Obesity as beta-3 receptor plays in lipolysis
slide7

6. Among diabetic patients using insulin or oral hypoglycemic agents (OHAs), why are beta-blockers used with special caution if not totally avoided?

  • Beta- blocker can induce hyperglycemia
  • Beta-blocker can mask hypoglycemic symptoms
  • Beta-blocker can attenuate effect of insulin and OHAs
  • Beta-blocker can induce insulin or OHA failure
slide8

7. The effects of muscarinic receptor activation in tissues like the exocrine glands and the extravascular smooth muscles have been linked with the generation of which second messenger molecule?

c. ATP

d. cGMP

  • IP3
  • cAMP
  • IP3, leading to an increase in intracellular calcium
8 in schizophrenic syndrome there is primarily
8. In schizophrenic syndrome there is primarily:
  • Decreased cholinergic activity
  • Decreased dopaminergic activity
  • Increased dopaminergic activity
  • Increased cholinergic activity
  • psychosis and schizophrenia - abnormally high dopaminergic transmission  
  • Parkinson’s disease - decreased dopamine activity
9 chloramphenicol can cause
9. Chloramphenicol can cause:
  • Diarrhea
  • Blindness
  • c. emesis
  • d. bone marrow depression
10 a broad spectrum gram negative cephalosporin
10. A broad spectrum gram-negative cephalosporin:
  • Cefalexin
  • Cefotaxime
  • c. Cefamandole
  • d. AOTA
  • Cefotaxime – 3rd generation cephalosporins have a broad spectrum of activity and further increased activity against Gram-negative organisms
  • Cefamandole – second generation
  • Cefalexin-first generation
slide12

11. What is the most important mechanism of termination of effects of released Norepinephrine which is the target action of TCA’s and cocaine:

  • Degradation by COMT
  • Sequestration into cells
  • Degradation by MAO
  • Reuptake into the presynaptic terminal
slide13

12. A given adrenergic agent induces uterine relaxation and bronchial muscle relaxation and bronchial muscle relaxation. These effect can be attributed to:

  • Alpha-1 stimulation
  • Alpha-2 stimulation
  • c. Beta-1 stimulation
  • d. Beta-2 stimulation
13 in combination therapy for tuberculosis the following are commonly administered orally except
13. In combination therapy for tuberculosis, the following are commonly administered orally EXCEPT:
  • Ethambutol
  • INH
  • c. Streptomycin
  • d. Rifampicin

Streptomycin - IM

14 furosemide is useful for the treatment of all the following except
14. Furosemide is useful for the treatment of all the following EXCEPT:
  • Acute pulmonary edema
  • Hypertensive crisis
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Congestive heart failure
15 what is the dominant adrenergic receptor in the heart
15. What is the dominant adrenergic receptor in the heart?
  • Alpha – 1
  • Alpha – 2
  • c. Beta – 1
  • d. Beta – 2
slide17
16. In terms of mechanism of action, which of the following drugs most closely resembles that of clonidine:
  • Phenylephrine
  • Reserpine
  • c. Methyldopa
  • d. Amlodipine
17 in the adrenal medulla norepinephrine is converted to epinephrine by the action of which enzyme
17. In the adrenal medulla, Norepinephrine is converted to epinephrine by the action of which enzyme?
  • DOPA decarboxylase
  • Phenylethylamine N-methyl transferase
  • COMT
  • MAO
slide19
18. At what dose should Dopamine be given as IV infusion to produce a predominantly dopaminergic effect?
  • 0.5 – 5 ug/kg/min
  • 5-10 ug/kg/min
  • 10-20 ug/kg/min
  • 20-50 ug/kg/min
19 prolonged therapeutic administration of cortisone induces
19. Prolonged therapeutic administration of cortisone induces:
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Hypofunction of the adrenal cortex
  • Hyperfunction of the pituitary gland
  • Hypofunction of the adrenal medulla
20 what is the mechanism of skeletal muscle paralysis produced by succinylcholine
20. What is the mechanism of skeletal muscle paralysis produced by succinylcholine?
  • Competitively inhibits binding of acetylcholine to the NM receptor
  • Increase the inward chloride conductance leading to hyperpolarization of the neuromuscular endplate membrane
  • Sustained depolarization of the motor end plate making it unresponsive to other impulses and upon repolarization cannot easily be depolarized
  • Repeated short depolarization of the motor end plate leading to a prolonged state of sodium channel inactivation
  • Irreversible and non-competitive inhibition of the NN receptor in both the ganglia and motor end plate with attenuation of depolarization impulse
slide22
21. Which of the following inhalational anesthetics produces the greatest augmentation of the effect of neuromuscular blockers?
  • Isoflurane
  • Sevoflurane
  • c. Halothane
  • d. Desflurane
slide23
22. Anaphylactoid reaction may be seen as a side effect with which of the following neuromuscular blockers?
  • Pancuronium
  • Vecuronium
  • c. Tubocurarine
  • d. Rocuronium
  • Tubocurarineinduces a non-immune mediated histamine release by mast cells which can manifest as an anaphylaxis like reaction
23 this can decrease gastric emptying time
23. This can decrease gastric emptying time:
  • Stress
  • Metoclopramide
  • c. None of these
  • d. Vigorous exercise
  • Stress – increase stomach contractions and emptying rate
  • Metoclopramide– gastroprokinetic agent
24 what is the primary mechanism of action of the drug indapamine
24. What is the primary mechanism of action of the drug Indapamine?
  • Inhibition of the 2Cl-Na-K contransporter in the distal convoluted tubule
  • Inhibition of the Na-Clcotransporter at the distal convoluted tubule
  • Inhibition of the Na-Clcotransporter at the collecting duct
  • Competitive inhibition of Aldosterone binding to its receptor
  • Competitive inhibition of Vasopressin binding to V2 receptor
25 what is considered as the toxic plasma concentration of digoxin
25. What is considered as the toxic plasma concentration of Digoxin?
  • >0.5 mg/ml
  • >150 ng/ml
  • c. >10 ng/ml
  • d. >2 ng/ml
26 the drug of choice in the treatment of arrhythmia caused by digitalis intoxication
26. The drug of choice in the treatment of arrhythmia caused by digitalis intoxication:
  • Methyldopa
  • Phenytoin
  • c. Hydralazine
  • d. Phenylephrine
slide28
27. Inotropic activity of the heart in congestive heart failure can be increased by which of the following agents?
  • Bipyridines
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Beta-1 Agonist

I only

II only

I and III

II and III

I, II and III

28 which of the following anti arrhythmic agents has been associated with lupus like side effect
28. Which of the following anti-arrhythmic agents has been associated with lupus-like side effect?
  • Quinidine
  • Lidocaine
  • c. Amiodarone
  • d. Procainamide
29 which of the following calcium channel blocker is most useful in arrhythmia therapy
29. Which of the following calcium channel blocker is most useful in arrhythmia therapy?
  • Verapamil
  • Diltiazem
  • c. Nifedipine
  • d. Lidocaine
  • Verapamilis the ONLY CCB with proven clinical role in arrhythmia therapy
slide31

30. Chinese patients are most likely to be more sensitive to the effects of which of the following drugs for hypertension that lower doses may have to be used?

  • Prazosin
  • Amlodipine
  • c. Metoprolol
  • d. HCTZ
  • Chinese patients are most likely to be more sensitive to the effects of beta blocker
31 which of the following benzodiazepines has the shortest half life and a rapid onset of action
31. Which of the following benzodiazepines has the shortest half-life and a rapid onset of action?
  • Lorazepam
  • Triazolam
  • c. Oxazepam
  • d. Diazepam
  • Triazolam and Midazolamhave the shortest half-lives with a rapid onset of action
slide33
32. Which of the following findings in a patient taking Phenytoin would warrant reduction in the dose?
  • Gingival hyperplasia
  • Nystagmus
  • c. Osteomalacia
  • d. Ataxia
  • Ataxia and diplopia are early manifestations of toxicity
33 which of the following drugs for seizure is metabolized to yield phenobarbital
33. Which of the following drugs for seizure is metabolized to yield Phenobarbital?
  • Lamotrigine
  • Vigabatrin
  • c. Primidone
  • d. Topiramate
  • Phenobarbital is one of the two active metabolites of Primidone
slide35
34. When Phenytoin is given intravenously, what is the maximum rate by which the drug can be administered?
  • 10mg/min
  • 20mg/min
  • 30mg/min
  • 50mg/min
  • When Phenytoin is given intravenously, the maximum rate by which the drug can be administered is 50mg/min
35 what is entacapone
35. What is Entacapone?
  • A selective MAO-A inhibitor
  • A selective MAO-B inhibitor
  • A Dopamine-3 receptor agonist
  • COMT inhibitor
  • Entacapone is an inhibitor of COMT which can convert levodopa to 3-O-methyldopa, a metabolite which can interfere with the transport of Levodopa across the blood brain barrier
36 which of the following drug is most useful in controlling the bradykinesia of parkinsonism
36. Which of the following drug is most useful in controlling the bradykinesia of Parkinsonism?
  • Levodopa
  • Bromocriptine
  • Selegeline
  • Entacapone
slide38
37. What type of protein is primarily targeted by Digitalis glycosides when they exert their effect on the heart?
  • Receptor
  • Ion channels
  • transporters
  • structural proteins
  • Cardiac glycosides inhibit Na+/K+ ATPase, the membrane bound transporter often called the sodium pump.
slide39

38. Biotransformation of orally administered drugs occurring primarily in the liver that reduces the amount of drug finally entering the systemic circulation is often referred to as:

  • Enterohepatic recirculation
  • Gastric emptying
  • First pass effect
  • Enzyme induction
slide40
39. What neurotransmitter is released by the preganglionic fibers as a response to sympathetic stimulation?
  • Acetylcholine
  • Norepinephrine
  • Serotonin
  • Dopamine
  • Acetylcholine is the preganglionic neurotransmitter in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system
slide41

40. A 55 year old male with kidney stones has been placed on a diuretic to decrease calcium excretion. However, after a few weeks, he develops an attack of gout. Which diuretic was he taking?

  • Furosemide
  • HCTZ
  • Spironolactone
  • d. Triamterene

HCTZ can also inhibit the excretion of uric acid and cause its accumulation, leading to an attack of gout

slide42

41. A 45-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with hypertension and started on monotherapy designed to reduce peripheral resistance and prevent NaCl and water retention. He has developed a persistent cough. Which of the following drugs would have the same benefits but would not cause cough?

  • Losartan
  • Nifedipine
  • Prazosin
  • Propranolol
  • Losartan is an ARB that will have the same beneficial effects but will not produce cough.
42 what is the amino acid precursor in the synthesis of catecholamines
42. What is the amino acid precursor in the synthesis of catecholamines?
  • Phenylalanine
  • Glycine
  • Tyrosine
  • Tryptamine
  • Tryptamine for 5HT/Serotonin
43 which of the following beta blockers is cardioselective
43. Which of the following beta-blockers is cardioselective?
  • Labetalol
  • Propranolol
  • Pindolol
  • Esmolol
  • BEAM = Bisoprolol, Esmolol, Atenolol, Metoprolol
44 bethanechol is clinically used for which of the following conditions
44. Bethanechol is clinically used for which of the following conditions?
  • Urinary retention in neurogenic bladder
  • Intestinal obstruction
  • Chronic glaucoma
  • Supraventricular tachycardia
  • Due to its acetylcholine-like effect on the genitourinary tract
slide46
45. Which of the following findings may be consistent with an overdose of or accidental exposure to an organophosphate?
  • Constipation
  • Mydriasis
  • Emesis
  • Peripheral vasodilation
  • DUMBBELSS ( diarrhea, urination, miosis, bradycardia, bronchoconstriction, emesis, lacrimation, sweating, salivation)
46 ipratropium oxytopium and tiotropium are antimuscarinic agents that are most useful as
46. Ipratropium, Oxytopium, and Tiotropium are antimuscarinic agents that are most useful as:
  • Mydriatics
  • Cycloplegic agents
  • Relaxant of bronchial smooth muscles
  • Inhibitors of involuntary muscle contractions
  • Inhibitors of bronchial gland secretions
slide48
47. Which of the following anti hypertensive agents is most appropriate for elderly male patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia?
  • Prazosin
  • Metoprolol
  • HCTZ
  • Enalapril
  • - alpha blocker, which can also relax the prostatic smooth muscles providing relief of urinary retention
slide49
48. Which of the following drugs classified as NSAIDs inhibit/s the COX-2 more than the COX-1 isozymes?
  • Indomethacin
  • Ibuprofen
  • Mefenamic acid
  • Celecoxib
  • Coxibs and Meloxicam inhibit the COX 2 more than the COX 1 isozymes
49 the most common prophylactic measure used worldwide to prevent tuberculosis
49. The most common prophylactic measure used worldwide to prevent tuberculosis:
  • INH
  • Bacillus calmetteguerine vaccine
  • Ethambutol
  • Streptomycin
50 which of the following agents is a strong full agonist of opioid receptors
50. Which of the following agents is a strong full agonist of opioid receptors?
  • Hydromorphone
  • Propoxyphene
  • Hydrocodone
  • Pentazocin
  • Hydromorphone, Oxymorphone, Methadone and Morphine are the strong full agonist of opioid receptor
slide52

51. The activity of regular heparin when given intravenously is best monitored at least every 6 hours for the first 24 hours of therapy using what parameter?

  • Protime
  • Platelet count
  • Activated Partial thromboplastin time
  • Bleeding time
52 which of the following benzodiazepines has the shortest half life and a rapid onset of action
52. Which of the following benzodiazepines has the shortest half-life and a rapid onset of action?
  • Lorazepam
  • Triazolam
  • Oxazepam
  • Diazepam
  • Triazolamand Midazolam have the shortest half lives with rapid onset of action
53 which of the following findings in a patient taking phenytoin would warrant reduction in dose
53. Which of the following findings in a patient taking Phenytoin would warrant reduction in dose?
  • Gingival hyperplasia
  • Nystagmus
  • Ataxia
  • Hirsutism
  • Ataxia and diplopia are early manifestations of toxicity.
54 parenteral calcium is used as an antidote for which of the following situations
54. Parenteral calcium is used as an antidote for which of the following situations?
  • Verapamil overdoses
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Cocaine intoxication
  • Verapamil overdoses and hyperkalemia
  • Parenteral calcium is used to reverse the cardiac effects of calcium channel blocker overuse and hyperkalemia.
55 which of the following antibiotics belong to the ureidopenicillin class of agents
55. Which of the following antibiotics belong to the ureidopenicillin class of agents?
  • Carbenicillin
  • Ticarcillin
  • Piperacillin
  • Pivampicin
  • Piperacillin and Mezlocillin are ureidopenicillins.
56 methotrexate is an a
56. Methotrexate is an/a:
  • Antimetabolite
  • Nitrourea
  • alkylating agent
  • antibiotic
57 which of the following antibiotics reversibly binds to the 50s subunit of the bacterial ribosome
57. Which of the following antibiotics reversibly binds to the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome?
  • Orimed
  • Gerafen
  • Zyvox
  • Inoflox
  • 50S (Macrolide, Chloramphenicol, Clindamycin)
  • Gerafen is Chloramphenicol
  • Orimed is Gentamycin(Aminoglycoside)
  • Zyvox is Linezolid
  • Inoflox is Ofloxacin (Quinolones)
slide59

58. Which of the following new Insulin preparations has a characteristic release pattern that shows no peak and a plateau serum Insulin level that is maintained for about 24 hours?

  • Lantus
  • Humalog
  • Apidra
  • Novomix 70/30
  • Lantus is Insulin Glargine “peakless insulin”
59 what is considered as the most common cause of air pollution
59. What is considered as the most common cause of air pollution?
  • Sulfur oxide
  • Nitrogen oxide
  • Hydrocarbons
  • Carbon monoxide
slide61

60. A diabetic on oral hypoglycemic drug, chlorpropamide, suffered from enteric fever and was prescribed chloramphenicol. He developed severe hypoglycemia. This is because:

  • Chloramphenicol itself has mild hypoglycemic effect
  • Chloramphenicol increases the absorption of chlorpropamide
  • Chloramphenicol inhibits the metabolism of chlorpropamide
  • Chloramphenicol causes release of insulin
61 use of yerba buena
61. Use of Yerba buena:
  • Antiseptic
  • Mouthwash
  • Analgesic
  • Diuretic
62 use of quisqualis indica
62. Use of Quisqualisindica:
  • Intestinal worm
  • Lowers blood pressure
  • Arthritis
  • Antifungal
63 which of the following is not employed in the treatment of depression
63. Which of the following is not employed in the treatment of depression?
  • Venlafaxine
  • Sertraline
  • Paroxetine
  • Zolpidem
  • Zolpidem is used as a sedative hypnotic
64 lioresal is used primarily as a an
64. Lioresal® is used primarily as a/an:
  • Sympathomimetic
  • Anti-anxiety
  • muscle relaxant
  • Anti-spasmodic
  • LIORESAL is baclofen
slide66

For questions 65-67:A 58-year –old white male who has a history of essential hyper tension and bronchial asthma has recently been diagnosed with prostatic hypertrophy. His medication history includes the following drugs:

slide67
65. Which of these agents and uses could worsen the urinary retention he is experiencing as a result of his prostate problems?
  • Propranolol
  • Ipratropium
  • Metaproterenol
  • Finasteride
  • Prazosin
66 which agent and use could worsen or cause an acute asthma attack
66. Which agent and use could worsen or cause an acute asthma attack?
  • Propranolol
  • Ipratropium
  • Metaproterenol
  • Finasteride
  • Prazosin
  • Because this is a nonselective β-blocker , there could be some inhibit ion of β2 -receptors in the bronchial tree, causing bronchoconstriction and possible complication of the patient 's asthma.
67 which agent acts selectively at 2 receptors
67. Which agent acts selectively at β2 - receptors?
  • Propranolol
  • Ipratropium
  • Metaproterenol
  • Finasteride
  • Prazosin
  • Propranolol is a nonselective β-blocker
  • Prazosin is a selective α1 -blocker
  • Neither ipratropium nor Proscar works through the adrenergic system.
slide70

For quest ions 68-70: A 55-year –old black female has a history of moderate hyper tension, glaucoma, and mild osteoarthritis. Her medication history includes the following drugs:

68 which of her glaucoma medicines acts via an indirect mechanism
68. Which of her glaucoma medicines acts via an indirect mechanism?
  • Metoprolol
  • Pilocarpine gel
  • Epinephrine drops
  • Isoflurophate
  • Timolol
  • III only
  • I and V only
  • II and V only
  • IV only
  • II and IV only
  • Pilocarpine acts directly at the muscarinic receptor
  • Epinephrine and timololboth act directly at β- receptors
  • Isoflurophateinhibits the metabolism of acetylcholine, indirectly increasing levels of the endogenous neurotransmitter .
69 which two agents could have an additive effect to produce excessive bradycardia
69. Which two agents could have an additive effect to produce excessive bradycardia?
  • Metoprolol
  • Pilocarpine gel
  • Epinephrine drops
  • Isoflurophate
  • Timolol
  • III only
  • I and V only
  • II and IV only
  • IV only
  • II and V only
  • Metoprolol , a β1 -selective agent, can cause bradycardia.
  • The addition of topical timolol , while limiting systemic absorption, could have an additive β-blocking effect to decrease hear t rate (negative chronotropy) .
70 which two glaucoma agents could lessen the effects of the other
70. Which two glaucoma agents could lessen the effects of the other?
  • Metoprolol
  • Pilocarpine gel
  • Epinephrine drops
  • Isoflurophate
  • Timolol
  • III only
  • I and V only
  • II and IV only
  • IV only
  • II and V only
  • - Pilocarpine and isoflurophate both act via cholinergic receptors
  • Pilocarpine - acts directly on the receptor
  • Isoflurophate – indirectly increases acetylcholine levels
  • Epinephrine - β-agonists
  • Timolol - β-antagonists
slide74

71. A patient on oral anticoagulant therapy is commenced on sulfamethoxaole-trimethoprim, double-strength twice daily. One may expect to see the international normalized ratio:

  • Increase
  • Decrease
  • remain unchanged
  • AOTA
slide75

72. An unconscious patient is brought into the emergency department. The patient is given 50 mL of 50% dextrose in water, thiamine 100 mg IV, followed by naloxone 1 mg, at which point he awakens. This patient most likely has overdosed on which of the following substances?

  • Amitriptyline
  • Cocaine
  • Haloperidol
  • Heroin
73 contraindications to the administration of syrup of ipecac include which of the following
73. Contraindications to the administration of syrup of ipecac include which of the following?
  • an unconscious patient
  • a patient who is experiencing a generalized tonic-clonic seizure
  • a patient who has ingested a caustic substance
  • Al l of the above
  • none of the above
slide77
74. Ethyl alcohol (EtOH) is administered to patients who have ingested either ethylene glycol or methanol because EtOH:
  • helps sedate patients.
  • increases the metabolism of ethylene glycol and methanol.
  • blocks the format ion of the toxic metabolites of ethylene glycol and methanol.
  • increases the renal clearance of ethylene glycol and methanol .
  • is not an antidote for ethylene glycol or methanol overdoses.
slide78

75. A 75 year old woman with hypertension is being treated with a thiazide. Her blood pressure responds and reads at 120/76mmHg. After several months on the medication, she complains of being tired and weak. An analysis of the blood indicates low values for which of the following?

  • Calcium
  • Potassium
  • Uric acid
  • Sodium
  • Hypokalemia is a common adverse effect of the thiazides and causes fatigue and lethargy in the patient.
  • Calcium, uric acid and glucose are usually elevated by thiazide. The sodium loss does not weaken the patient.
76 drugs may be considered as chemicals which are not synthesized in the body
76. Drugs may be considered as chemicals which are not synthesized in the body.
  • Drugs
  • Poisons
  • hormones
  • Xenobiotics
77 symbol for bioavailability
77. Symbol for bioavailability
  • F
  • f
  • AUC
  • BA
  • F is the Symbol for bioavailability. BA is abbreviation for it.
78 extent of absorption of oral drugs as compared to the absorption of a marketed drug product
78.  Extent of absorption of oral drugs as compared to the absorption of a marketed drug product
  • Relative bioavailability
  • Absolute bioavailability
  • Peak concentration
  • Max AUC
79 when tissue concentration high plasma concentration is
79. When tissue concentration high, plasma concentration is:
  • Increase
  • Decrease
  • Unchange
  • Either A or B
  • Tissue and plasma concentration are inversely proportional
slide83
80. Which of the following pairs is correct in reference to the physical nature of drugs at room temperature?
  • Aspirin – gaseous
  • Nitric oxide – solid
  • Nicotine - liquid
  • Atropine - liquid
  • Nicotine is liquid a room temperature. (A) & (D) is solid and (D) is gaseous.
81 which of the following affects drug activity
81. Which of the following affects drug activity?
  • Drug size
  • Physical nature
  • Drug reactivity
  • AOTA
  • NOTA
82 reaction of drug to the body
82. Reaction of drug to the body.
  • Pharmacodynamics
  • Pharmacokinetics
  • Biopharmaceutics
  • Pharmacology
83 reaction of body to drug
83. Reaction of body to drug
  • Pharmacodynamics
  • Pharmacokinetics
  • Biopharmaceutics
  • Pharmacology
84 drugs bound to receptors should bear the following to exert pharmacologic action
84. Drugs bound to receptors should bear the following to exert pharmacologic action
  • Affinity
  • Intrinsic action
  • AOTA
  • A only
  • (A) & (B) are required for drugs to exert effect. Affinity is for attachment to the receptor and intrinsic affinity is for signaling the intended effect of drug.
slide88

85. The process by which the drug is engulfed by the cell membrane and carried into the cell by pinching off the newly formed vesicle inside the membrane.

  • Exocytosis
  • Endocytosis
  • Membrane permeation
  • Transmembrane transport
86 the passive flux of molecule down a concentration gradient is given by which equation
86. The passive flux of molecule down a concentration gradient is given by which equation?
  • Fick’s law
  • Henderson-Hasslebach Equation
  • Charles’ law
  • Michealis-Menten Equation
87 rate of diffusion is inversely proportional to which of the following
87. Rate of diffusion is inversely proportional to which of the following?
  • Surface area
  • membrane thickness
  • Concentration
  • NOTA
88 which of the following is the membrane receptor for cardioactive digitalis glycosides
88. Which of the following is the membrane receptor for cardioactive digitalis glycosides?
  • Na+/K+ATPase
  • Na+/ Cl-ATPase
  • K+ATPase
  • PO4 ATPase
90 transduction process that links drug occupancy of receptor and pharmacologic response is termed
90. Transduction process that links drug occupancy of receptor and pharmacologic response is termed:
  • Binding
  • Coupling
  • Drug activity
  • Drug attachment
91 volume of distribution is used to
91. Volume of distribution is used to:
  • Relate drug amount and plasma concentration
  • Guide to know if the drug is free or bound to plasma proteins
  • AOTA
  • B Only
  • Both are possible areas where volume of distribution is used
93 all exist in the gastric gland except
93. All exist in the gastric gland, except;
  • Mucous secreting cells
  • Chief cells

c. Parietal cells

d. NOTA

All exist in the gastric glands and aids in the possible metabolism of drugs

94 metabolism of the following drugs is delayed with food except
94. Metabolism of the following drugs is delayed with food, except;
  • Cephalexin
  • K+ ion
  • Propranolol
  • Acetaminophen
  • Food increases propranolol absorption
95 which of the following can be done if dissolution is slow except
95. Which of the following can be done if dissolution is slow, except;
  • Use salts
  • Use pH control
  • use crystalline solids
  • use rapidly dissolving polymorph
  • Instead of crystalline use AMORPHOUS solids
96 which of the following is given with food to reduce irritation
96. Which of the following is given with food to reduce irritation?
  • Iron salts
  • NSAIDS
  • AOTA
  • NOTA
  • Both and erythromycin as well are given with food to reduce irritation
97 drugs that interact with solvents forming crystals
97. Drugs that interact with solvents forming crystals.
  • Solvates
  • Solvates
  • Liquid Crystals
  • Poly morphs
slide101
98. The equation which was developed from the observation of dissolution behaviour of solids in solvents systems
  • Noyes-Whitmann equation
  • Noyes-Whatmann equation
  • Noyles-Whitney equation
  • Noyes-Whitney equation
slide102

Definition of Noyes-Whitney equation

  • Dc/dt = KDS/ h (Cs-C)
  • Where:
  • K =disso constant
  • D=diffusion rate
  • S= surface area
  • h=thickness of diffusion stagnant layer
  • Cs= conc at diffusion/stagnant layer
  • C=conc at bulk solvent
99 in dissolution systems increase agitation result to
99. In dissolution systems, increase agitation result to?
  • Reduce thickness of stagnant layer
  • Decrease dissolution
  • No effect
  • Either A or B
  • Increase dissolution and decrease thickness of stagnant layer
100 measured by comparing auc of oral and iv administration
100. Measured by comparing AUC of oral and IV administration
  • Relative bioavailability
  • Absolute bioavailability
  • Peak concentration
  • Max AUC