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Immunology Exam 1 Part 2. Created by: Laura Wilson. Where are lymphoid stem cells produced in older fetuses and neonates?. Bone marrow . In mammals, where do T cells mature?. Thymus. In mammals, where do B lymphocytes mature?. Bone marrow.

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Immunology exam 1 part 2 l.jpg

Immunology Exam 1Part 2

Created by:

Laura Wilson





The classification of lymphoid organs and tissues is based on l.jpg
The classification of lymphoid organs and tissues is based on:

  • The level to which they participate in the maturation of lymphocytes

  • Provision of a suitable environment for the interaction between foreign antigen and antigen-sensitive T and B lymphocytes


What makes up the central primary or generative lymphoid organs and tissues l.jpg
What makes up the central (primary or generative) lymphoid organs and tissues?

  • Thymus

  • Bone marrow (mammals)

  • Bursa of Fabricius (avian)


What are the functions of the central lymphoid organs and tissues l.jpg
What are the functions of the central lymphoid organs and tissues?

  • Regulate production and maturation of lymphocytes, ie, generate lymphocytes that are individually different, the concept being “one cell, one specificity”


Slide8 l.jpg
T/F tissues?

  • All of the central lymphoid organs regress with age


False l.jpg
False tissues?

  • All but bone marrow regress with age


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Mature lymphocytes acquire __ __ __ and other ___ ____ and learn to discriminate btwn self antigens, which are tolerated, and foreign antigens, which, generally are not

  • Specific antigen receptors

  • Phenotypic characteristics


Maturation and differentiation of lymphocytes occur l.jpg
Maturation and differentiation of lymphocytes occur: learn to discriminate btwn self antigens, which are tolerated, and foreign antigens, which, generally are not

  • Independent of foreign antigenic stimulation


What happens with removal of the central lymphoid organs early in life l.jpg
What happens with removal of the central lymphoid organs early in life?

  • Loss of lymphocytes

  • Loss of immune responsiveness


Where is the thymus found l.jpg
Where is the thymus found? early in life?

  • Anterior mediastinal space

  • In horses, pigs, sheep, cattle, and chickens, it also extends up the neck as far as the thyroid gland



Slide15 l.jpg
Part of the thymus that contains about 85% of the total thymocytes, cells here are relatively immature and divide rapidly

  • Cortex (outer thymic zone)


Part of the thymus containing mostly mature lymphocytes l.jpg
Part of the thymus containing mostly mature lymphocytes thymocytes, cells here are relatively immature and divide rapidly

  • Medulla


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T/F thymocytes, cells here are relatively immature and divide rapidly

  • Thymic epithelial cells are found throughout the thymus


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True thymocytes, cells here are relatively immature and divide rapidly


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T/F thymocytes, cells here are relatively immature and divide rapidly

  • Interdigitating dendritic cells (IDCs) and macrophages are found in the thymic lobules


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True thymocytes, cells here are relatively immature and divide rapidly

  • Particularly where?

  • At the coricomedullary junction


Where are interdigitating dendritic cells idcs and macrophages derived from l.jpg
Where are interdigitating dendritic cells (IDCs) and macrophages derived from?

  • Bone marrow


Where does thymic involution begin l.jpg
Where does thymic involution begin? macrophages derived from?

  • Within the cortex which may disappear completely, whereas medullary remnants persist.


What is corical atrophy related to l.jpg
What is corical atrophy related to? macrophages derived from?

  • Corticosteroid sensitivity [lysis] of the immature cortical thymocytes


What occurs following neonatal thymectomy of day old mice l.jpg
What occurs following neonatal thymectomy of day-old mice? macrophages derived from?

  • Total loss of cell-mediated immune response

  • B cell response to protein antigens is significantly impaired


When stem cells migrate to the thymus they acquire l.jpg
When stem cells migrate to the thymus, they acquire: macrophages derived from?

  • Antigen receptors (TCRs) and other functional and phenotypic characteristics of mature T cells


What causes the functional and phenotypic changes in t cell maturation l.jpg
What causes the functional and phenotypic changes in T cell maturation?

  • The influence of cytokines and thymic hormones



Slide28 l.jpg
The phenotypic markers appear on the developing T cell membrane as _____ at different stages of differentiation in the thymus

  • Proteins


Maturation of stem cells begins in the and as thymocytes mature they migrate toward the l.jpg
Maturation of stem cells begins in the ____, and as thymocytes mature, they migrate toward the ______.

  • Cortex

  • Medulla


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T/F thymocytes mature, they migrate toward the ______.

  • Only mature T cells exit the thymus and enter the blood and peripheral lymphoid tissues


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True thymocytes mature, they migrate toward the ______.


Positive and negative cell selection of thymocytes is a function of l.jpg
Positive and negative cell selection of thymocytes is a function of:

  • Thymic epithelial cells

  • IDCs

  • macrophages


Which thymocytes undergo positive selection l.jpg
Which thymocytes undergo positive selection? function of:

  • Thymocytes that express functional CD4 or CD8 molecules, ie, recognize self MHC I and II molecules

  • Thymocytes that express TCRs that have weak affinity for self-peptides


Which thymocytes undergo negative selection l.jpg
Which thymocytes undergo negative selection? function of:

  • Thymocytes that DO NOT express CD4 or CD8 molecules

  • Thymocytes that DO NOT express TCRs or express TCRs that cannot bind weakly to self peptides

  • Thymocytes that express TCRs that have strong affinity for self-peptides

  • (Cell death may occur via neglect or by apoptosis)


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The process of + and – selection effectively eliminates most T cells in the thymus, to the extent that >__% of the developing T cells die in the thymus

  • 90


Apoptotic thymocytes are phagocytosed by l.jpg
Apoptotic thymocytes are phagocytosed by: most T cells in the thymus, to the extent that >__% of the developing T cells die in the thymus

  • Thymic macrophages


Definition l.jpg
Definition: most T cells in the thymus, to the extent that >__% of the developing T cells die in the thymus

  • Lymphoepithelial organ found in birds but not in mammals; observed as a sac-like structure dorsal to the cloaca


Bursa of fabricius bf l.jpg
Bursa of Fabricius (BF) most T cells in the thymus, to the extent that >__% of the developing T cells die in the thymus


When does the bf reach maximum size l.jpg
When does the BF reach maximum size? most T cells in the thymus, to the extent that >__% of the developing T cells die in the thymus

  • 1-2 weeks after hatching (followed by gradual involution)


By the time the bird reaches age only atrophied vestiges remain of the bf and thymus l.jpg
By the time the bird reaches _____ age, only atrophied vestiges remain of the BF and thymus.

  • 6 months (sexual maturity)


What occurs following a bursectomy of day old chicks l.jpg
What occurs following a bursectomy of day-old chicks? vestiges remain of the BF and thymus.

  • Only a slight drop in the numbers of circulating lymphocytes

  • Dramatic decline in Ab immune response

  • Slight to no effect on cell-mediated immunity


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T/F vestiges remain of the BF and thymus.

  • Peripheral (secondary) lymphoid organs arise late in fetal life and persist through adulthood


Slide43 l.jpg
True vestiges remain of the BF and thymus.


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T/F vestiges remain of the BF and thymus.

  • Removal of any of the peripheral lymphoid organs significantly reduces an individual or animal’s immune capacity


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False vestiges remain of the BF and thymus.

  • It does not significantly reduce it


The sites where mature lymphocytes response to foreign antigens are initiated and develop l.jpg
The sites where mature lymphocytes response to foreign antigens are initiated and develop.

  • Peripheral Lymphoid Organs


Slide47 l.jpg
Adaptive immune responses to antigens entering the body via the skin and mucosa, or from parenchymal organs and CTs are initiated in the:

  • Lymph nodes


Slide48 l.jpg
T/F the skin and mucosa, or from parenchymal organs and CTs are initiated in the:

  • The majority of B cells die through apoptosis


Slide49 l.jpg
True the skin and mucosa, or from parenchymal organs and CTs are initiated in the:

  • (95-99%)—a reflection of negative selection of self-reactive B cells


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T/F the skin and mucosa, or from parenchymal organs and CTs are initiated in the:

  • Positively selected B cells seed the peripheral lymphoid organs and tissues


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True the skin and mucosa, or from parenchymal organs and CTs are initiated in the:


When do b cells begin to migrate from the bursa to the periphery l.jpg
When do B cells begin to migrate from the bursa to the periphery?

  • A few days prior to hatching

  • Thus neonatal surgical bursectomy can severely compromise the normal development of the B cell lineage but does not result in complete ablation of peripheral B cells


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T/F periphery?

  • Bursectomy at 16 days of incubation can result in complete agammaglobulinemia


Slide54 l.jpg
True periphery?



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Bone marrow is divided into two compartments: periphery?

  • Hematopoietic compartment

  • Vascular compartment


What does the hematopoietic compartment contain l.jpg
What does the hematopoietic compartment contain? periphery?

  • Precursors of all blood cells as well as macrophages, and lymphocytes


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T/F periphery?

  • In mammals, the hematopoietic compartment of the bone marrow is both a 1o and 2o lymphoid organ


Slide59 l.jpg
True periphery?


What are the functions of bone marrow l.jpg
What are the functions of bone marrow? periphery?

  • Source of all blood cells

  • Site of maturation of B lymphocytes in mammals

  • Mononuclear phagocytes remove particulate antigens from circulating blood


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T/F periphery?

  • Bone marrow contains numerous plasma cells, which develop in peripheral lymphoid tissues as a result of antigenic stimulation of B cells and then migrate to the bone marrow


Slide62 l.jpg
True periphery?


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T/F periphery?

  • Peripheral lymphoid organs arise late in fetal life and persist through adulthood


Slide64 l.jpg
True periphery?


Slide65 l.jpg
T/F periphery?

  • Removal of any of the peripheral lymphoid organs significantly reduces an individual or an animal’s immune capacity


False66 l.jpg
False periphery?

  • It does not significantly reduce it


All lymph nodes eventually drain into the l.jpg
All lymph nodes eventually drain into the: periphery?

  • Thoracic duct system and back to the peripheral blood


B cells are organized into l.jpg
B cells are organized into: periphery?

  • 1o and 2o follicles within the cortex


Follicles w o germinal centers they contain mostly mature na ve b lymphocytes l.jpg
Follicles w/o germinal centers; they contain mostly mature, naïve B lymphocytes

  • Primary follicles


Follicles with germinal centers gcs l.jpg
Follicles with germinal centers (GCs). naïve B lymphocytes

  • Secondary follicles


Germinal centers develop in response to l.jpg
Germinal centers develop in response to: naïve B lymphocytes

  • Antigenic stimulation of B cells; thus, B cell proliferation, selection of B cells producing high affinity Abs by FDCs, and generation of memory B cells, occur in the GC


Contains mostly t cells some macrophages and interdigitating dendritic cells l.jpg
Contains mostly T cells, some macrophages and interdigitating dendritic cells.

  • Paracortex


Lymphocytes enter the node from the circulation through the in the paracortex l.jpg
Lymphocytes enter the node from the circulation through the _____ _____ _______ in the paracortex.

  • High Endothelial Venules (HEVs)



Slide75 l.jpg
Lymph entering a lymph node percolates through the nodal stroma, where the antigens are extracted from the fluid by APCs such as:

  • Macrophages

  • IDCs

  • B cells




Lymphoid tissue that is organized around the central arteriole in the spleen l.jpg
Lymphoid tissue that is organized around the central arteriole in the spleen

  • White pulp


The white pulp organized around the central arteriole forms l.jpg
The white pulp organized around the central arteriole forms: arteriole in the spleen

  • Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS)


Which lymphocytes are found around the central arteriole l.jpg
Which lymphocytes are found around the central arteriole? arteriole in the spleen

  • T cells (about 67% are helper T cells, 37% are cytotoxic T cells)


What type of lymphocytes are organized into 1 o and 2 o follicles l.jpg
What type of lymphocytes are organized into 1 arteriole in the spleeno and 2o follicles

  • B cells



Slide83 l.jpg

The lymphoid tissue which contains macrophages, some activated B cells and plasma cells. It is a storage site for erythrocytes, platelets, and granulocytes.

  • Red pulp


What is the function of macrophages in the red pulp l.jpg
What is the function of macrophages in the red pulp? activated B cells and plasma cells. It is a storage site for erythrocytes, platelets, and granulocytes.

  • They phagocytose old platelets and RBCs and also clear the blood of microorganisms and other particles


Slide85 l.jpg
T/F activated B cells and plasma cells. It is a storage site for erythrocytes, platelets, and granulocytes.

  • The spleen is the major site for the phagocytosis of antibody-coated (opsonized) microbes


Slide86 l.jpg
True activated B cells and plasma cells. It is a storage site for erythrocytes, platelets, and granulocytes.


Separates the white pulp from the red pulp it contains macrophages some b cells and some t cells l.jpg
Separates the white pulp from the red pulp. It contains macrophages, some B cells and some T cells.

  • Marginal zone


Slide88 l.jpg

Blood borne antigens and lymphocytes enter the spleen through the ___ ____, which divide into capillary branches that empty into the ___ ____; from here the blood enters the ____ _____ of the red pulp.

  • Central arteriole

  • Marginal zone

  • Vascular sinusoids


Where does b cell activation occur l.jpg
Where does B cell activation occur? through the ___ ____, which divide into capillary branches that empty into the ___ ____; from here the blood enters the ____ _____ of the red pulp.

  • At the junctions of the follicles and the T cell-rich PALS.

  • Activated B cells subsequently migrate into GCs or into the red pulp (where they differentiate to become antibody-producing plasma cells)


Other peripheral lymphoid tissue l.jpg
Other Peripheral Lymphoid Tissue through the ___ ____, which divide into capillary branches that empty into the ___ ____; from here the blood enters the ____ _____ of the red pulp.


Slide91 l.jpg

This tissue comprises all lymphoid cells present as either solitary or aggregated nodules in epithelia, lamina propria and submucosa of the GIT, resp. tract and genitourinary tract.

  • Mucosal-associated lymphoid tissues (MALT)


The main sites of malt are l.jpg
The main sites of MALT are: solitary or aggregated nodules in epithelia, lamina propria and submucosa of the GIT, resp. tract and genitourinary tract.

  • Gut-associated lymphoid tissues (GALT)

  • Bronchial-associated lymphoid tissues (BALT)

  • Genitourinary tract


Lymphoid tissues in the lamina propria of the intestines peyer s patches appendix and tonsils l.jpg
Lymphoid tissues in the lamina propria of the intestines, Peyer’s patches, appendix, and tonsils:

  • Gut-associated lymphoid tissues (GALT)


Slide94 l.jpg
Consists of lymphocytes and accessory cells in the epidermis and dermis that detect and respond to environmental antigens.

  • Cutaneous immune system


Definition95 l.jpg
Definition: and dermis that detect and respond to environmental antigens.

  • The continuous movement of lymphocytes from one lymphoid organ or tissue to another via the blood and lymph, and, if activated, to peripheral inflammatory sites


Lymphocyte recirculation l.jpg
Lymphocyte Recirculation and dermis that detect and respond to environmental antigens.


Slide97 l.jpg
T/F and dermis that detect and respond to environmental antigens.

  • Naïve lymphocytes specific for any given antigen are very few in number


Slide98 l.jpg
True and dermis that detect and respond to environmental antigens.

  • Thus, lymphocyte recirculation ensures that an antigen-specific lymphocyte will come in contact with that antigen no matter where in the body the antigen is located.



Slide100 l.jpg
T/F each hour?

  • Lymphocyte recirculation ensures that activated (effector) lymphocytes are delivered to the particular tissue where they are required for elimination of the antigen


Slide101 l.jpg
True each hour?


The predominant cells in the blood are l.jpg
The predominant cells in the blood are: each hour?

  • T lymphocytes


Slide103 l.jpg

Extravasation of lymphocytes from the blood into a peripheral ln. occurs selectively at modified post-capillary venules w/n the paracortex of the node, called:

  • High endothelial venules (HEVs)


Slide104 l.jpg
T/F peripheral ln. occurs selectively at modified post-capillary venules w/n the paracortex of the node, called:

  • HEVs are present in all of the 2o lymphoid organs


False105 l.jpg
False peripheral ln. occurs selectively at modified post-capillary venules w/n the paracortex of the node, called:

  • All but the spleen


What type of cells do hevs possess l.jpg
What type of cells do HEVs possess? peripheral ln. occurs selectively at modified post-capillary venules w/n the paracortex of the node, called:

  • Cuboidal (plump) endothelial cells


Slide107 l.jpg
Activated cells that express a variety of adhesion molecules not found on the flat resting endothelial cells of ordinary venules

  • Cuboidal endothelial cells of the HEVs


Slide108 l.jpg

The attachment of lymphocytes to the endothelium of peripheral lymphoid tissues is mediated by ____ _____ on the lymphocytes and ______ on endothelial cells.

  • Homing receptors

  • Addressins


Slide109 l.jpg
T/F peripheral lymphoid tissues is mediated by ____ _____ on the lymphocytes and ______ on endothelial cells.

  • Ordinarily, there is continuous lymphocyte movement through the node, but when an antigen enters the nodes, there is a temporary shut down in lymphocyte traffic, allowing antigen-specific lymphocytes to be activated and change into effector cells or memory cells


Slide110 l.jpg
True peripheral lymphoid tissues is mediated by ____ _____ on the lymphocytes and ______ on endothelial cells.


What occurs if a na ve t cell does not encounter an antigen l.jpg
What occurs if a naïve T cell does not encounter an antigen?

  • It exits through an efferent lymphatic vessel, reenters the circulation, and homes to another lymph node.


Slide112 l.jpg
T/F antigen?

  • The recirculation patterns of effector and memory T cells are the same as those of naïve T cells


False113 l.jpg
False antigen?

  • The recirculation patterns differ


Slide114 l.jpg

Effector and memory T cells express increased levels of certain cell adhesion molecules, allowing them to enter teriary _____ ______ and ___ _____ in addition to 2o lymphoid organs.

  • Extralymphoidal tissue

  • Sites of inflammation


Where are na ve b lymphocytes mainly found l.jpg
Where are naïve B lymphocytes mainly found? certain cell adhesion molecules, allowing them to enter teriary _____ ______ and ___ _____ in addition to 2

  • In the peripheral lymphoid organs


Why are na ve b lymphocytes found in peripheral lymphoid organs l.jpg
Why are naïve B lymphocytes found in peripheral lymphoid organs?

  • B/C B cells produce antibodies that act at a distance, hence, they need not home to sites of inflammation to mediate host defense.


Slide117 l.jpg
T/F organs?

  • A large fraction of blood lymphocytes are naïve B cells


False118 l.jpg
False organs?

  • Only a small fraction


What type of b lymphocytes do recirculation l.jpg
What type of B lymphocytes DO recirculation? organs?

  • Memory B cells

  • Some activated B cells

  • Plasma cells



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T cell precursors differentiate into ______ T cells within the thymus before populating the peripheral lymphoid organs and tissues.

  • Immunocompetent T cells


Slide122 l.jpg
T/F the thymus before populating the peripheral lymphoid organs and tissues.

  • T cells are relatively short-lived cells that survive for only a few days


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False! the thymus before populating the peripheral lymphoid organs and tissues.

  • T cells are relatively long-lived cells that may survive from 6 months to over 20 years


Slide124 l.jpg
T cells possess receptors (CD2) that enable them to bind to sheep RBCs. The sRBCs stick to the T cells to form:

  • “rosettes”


The formation of rosettes with srbcs and t cell receptors is a technique used to l.jpg
The formation of “rosettes” with sRBCs and T cell receptors is a technique used to:

  • Count T cells and to separate T cells from B cells


Several proteins are found on the surface of na ve t cells among them are proteins involved in l.jpg
Several proteins are found on the surface of naïve T cells. Among them are proteins involved in:

  • Antigen recognition

  • Signal transduction

  • Adhesion to APCs and target cells


A number of the cell surface proteins have been given a cd designation what is cd l.jpg
A number of the cell surface proteins have been given a CD designation. What is CD?

  • Cluster of differentiation

  • CD refers to the group of monoclonal antibodies that recognize the same protein on a cell surface


Slide128 l.jpg
Activation of a cell surface receptor, requires binding to its specific _____, which may be a ____-____ on another cell or a ____ _____.

  • Ligand

  • Counter-receptor

  • Soluble protein


The t cell receptor complex consists of l.jpg
The T cell receptor complex consists of: its specific _____, which may be a ____-____ on another cell or a ____ _____.

  • T cell receptor (TCR)

  • CD3 complex

  • Zeta proteins


Slide130 l.jpg

A disulfide-linked heterodimer glycoprotein that enables T cells to recognize processed antigens presented in association with MHC molecules.

  • T cell receptor (TCR)


Two types of tcrs have been identified two protein chains l.jpg
Two types of TCRs have been identified (two protein chains): cells to recognize processed antigens presented in association with MHC molecules.

  • TCRalpha/beta

  • TCRgamma/delta


Alpha beta chains are integral membrane proteins composed of l.jpg
Alpha/Beta chains are integral membrane proteins composed of:

  • An extracellular domain

  • A transmembrane domain

  • A short cytoplasmic tail


The extracellular domains of the tcralpha beta chain consist of l.jpg
The extracellular domains of the TCRalpha/beta chain consist of:

  • Variable, constant, and hinge regions


Slide134 l.jpg

Type of region where CDRs reside w/n the variable region; they consist of unique amino acid sequences that form the antigen-binding site of the TCR.

  • Hypervariable regions (Complementarity-determining regions, CDRs)


Slide135 l.jpg
T/F they consist of unique amino acid sequences that form the antigen-binding site of the TCR.

  • Both chains possess 3 CDRs juxtaposed to one another


Slide136 l.jpg
True they consist of unique amino acid sequences that form the antigen-binding site of the TCR.

  • CDR1, CDR2, CDR3


Which cdr is the center displaying most diversity and directly interacts with the antigens l.jpg
Which CDR is the center, displaying most diversity, and directly interacts with the antigens?

  • CD3



Slide139 l.jpg

The variable B chain contains a fourth hypervariable region, which doesn’t appear to participate in peptide recognition but is the binding site for microbial products called:

  • superantigens


Each t cells possesses up to how many tcrs l.jpg
Each T cells possesses up to how many TCRs? which doesn’t appear to participate in peptide recognition but is the binding site for microbial products called:

  • 30,000


Slide141 l.jpg
T/F which doesn’t appear to participate in peptide recognition but is the binding site for microbial products called:

  • The TCRs on the T cells are clonotypic, ie, they will recognize only a single epitope bound to an MHC protein.


Slide142 l.jpg
True which doesn’t appear to participate in peptide recognition but is the binding site for microbial products called:



Slide144 l.jpg
T/F TCR

  • The CD3 complex and the zeta chains are covalently linked to the TCRalpha/beta chains.


False145 l.jpg
False TCR

  • They are noncovalently linked



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T/F chains?

  • The two zeta chains are the same on all T cells


Slide148 l.jpg
True chains?


When a tcr binds an antigen what must occur l.jpg
When a TCR binds an antigen, what must occur? chains?

  • A signal must be sent to the T cell in order to initiate a response


Slide150 l.jpg
T/F chains?

  • The cytoplasmic tail of the TCR is too small to transduce signals


Slide151 l.jpg
True chains?

  • Therefore the biochemical signals for T cell activation DO NOT come from the TCR, but from the CDR complex and the zeta chains


The cd3 complex also functions in l.jpg
The CD3 complex also functions in: chains?

  • Stabilizing cell surface expression of TCR


Slide153 l.jpg
T/F chains?

  • T cells effectively express TCR on the cell surface w/o the CD3 complex


False154 l.jpg
False chains?

  • T cells DO NOT effectively express TCR on the cell surface w/o the CD3 complex


Membrane proteins which play critical roles in t cell response to antigen l.jpg
Membrane proteins which play critical roles in T cell response to antigen.

  • Accessory molecules


What do cd4 and cd8 molecules promote l.jpg
What do CD4 and CD8 molecules promote? response to antigen.

  • Adhesion of T cells to APCs and target cells and also play a role in signal transduction, thereby potentially T cell activation


Slide157 l.jpg
This TCR coreceptor is found on helper T cells, it binds to the B2 domain of the class II MHC molecule on the surface of professional APCs.

  • CD4 molecule


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This TCR coreceptor is found on cytotoxic T cells. It’s function is the recognition of the alpha3 domain of class I MHC molecules, enabling cytotoxic T cells to bind to target cells.

  • CD8 molecule


These molecules strengthen interactions between t lymphocytes and professional apcs or target cells l.jpg
These molecules strengthen interactions between T lymphocytes and professional APCs or target cells

  • Lymphocyte Adherence Molecules


What are some examples of lymphocyte adherence molecules l.jpg
What are some examples of Lymphocyte Adherence Molecules: lymphocytes and professional APCs or target cells

  • CD11a/CD18

  • CD2


Slide161 l.jpg
This molecule binds T cells to CD54 molecules on APCs and target cells. Promotes T cell binding to endothelial cells:

  • CD11a/CD18


Slide162 l.jpg

This molecule is found on resting T cells. Activated T cells express more than this molecule. It binds to a protein called CD58 present on APCs and target cells. It is also a T cell signal transducer.

  • CD2


Slide163 l.jpg

This is a membrane receptor for co-stimulatory signals [signal 2] that activates naïve T cells. It’s ligand is B7-1 and B7-2 that are expressed on the professional APCs.

  • CD28


Slide164 l.jpg
T/F [signal 2] that activates naïve T cells. It’s ligand is B7-1 and B7-2 that are expressed on the professional APCs.

  • CD28 is constitutively expressed on >90% of naïve helper T cells and 50% of cytotoxic T cells


Slide165 l.jpg
True [signal 2] that activates naïve T cells. It’s ligand is B7-1 and B7-2 that are expressed on the professional APCs.


Slide166 l.jpg
T/F [signal 2] that activates naïve T cells. It’s ligand is B7-1 and B7-2 that are expressed on the professional APCs.

  • The repertoire of TCRs available to an animal or individual is carefully regulated, ie, can respond to as many different foreign antigens as possible but not to self antigens.


Slide167 l.jpg
True [signal 2] that activates naïve T cells. It’s ligand is B7-1 and B7-2 that are expressed on the professional APCs.


What is the gene encoding for alpha chains in humans beta chains l.jpg
What is the gene encoding for alpha chains in humans? Beta chains?

  • Alpha:

  • Chromosome 14

  • Beta:

  • Chromosome 7


Multiple variable v region genes 100 and joining j region genes 75 occur with this tcr locus l.jpg
Multiple variable (V) region genes (100) and joining (J) region genes (75) occur with this TCR locus.

  • TCRalpha


Slide170 l.jpg
T/F region genes (75) occur with this TCR locus.

  • During the rearrangement of alpha chain genes, a randomly selected V gene is joined to a J gene and the exon is transcribed, combined with a constant (Calpha) region gene, and translated.


Slide171 l.jpg
True region genes (75) occur with this TCR locus.


Slide172 l.jpg
Multiple variable (V) region genes (75), diversity (D) region genes (2) and joining (J) region genes (12) occur at this TCR locus.

  • TCRB


How is the b beta chain exon formed l.jpg
How is the B (beta) chain exon formed? region genes (2) and joining (J) region genes (12) occur at this TCR locus.

  • By the random linkage of a V region gene, first to a D region gene and a J region gene, and then to a CB (beta) gene


What phenomenon controls the genetic expression of tcrs l.jpg
What phenomenon controls the genetic expression of TCRs? region genes (2) and joining (J) region genes (12) occur at this TCR locus.

  • Allelic exclusion


When does allelic exclusion occur l.jpg
When does allelic exclusion occur? region genes (2) and joining (J) region genes (12) occur at this TCR locus.

  • When only one of the parental alleles that code for the TCR is functional, rendering each T cell responsive to only a single epitope


How is the diversity of tcrs accounted for l.jpg
How is the diversity of TCRs accounted for? region genes (2) and joining (J) region genes (12) occur at this TCR locus.

  • Multiple germ-line genes

  • Gene rearrangements

  • N-region addition (nucleotide sequences that are not present in the genome but are encoded by random nucleotide additions)


In humans the number of potentially different tcr a b combinations is on the order of l.jpg
In humans, the number of potentially different TCR a/B combinations is on the order of:

  • Billions



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T/F TCR remains:

  • Rearranged TCRs in the thymus do not display somatic hypermutation as with B-cell-derived Igs.


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True TCR remains:


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T cells whose TCRs bind strongly to self-peptides (______ ____) are negatively selected during maturation in the thymus.

  • Forbidden clones




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These have been identified according to the particular function of them and the membrane markers (CD antigens) that they express.

  • Subsets of T cells


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T cell subset that helps B cells produce antibodies to protein antigens and promotes activation and proliferation of other T cells.

  • Helper T cells



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Helper T cells play a major role in promoting: cells.

  • Innate and adaptive immune responses by releasing soluble helper factors [cytokines] that affect the activities of several cell types


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T/F cells.

  • Professional APCs (macrophages, B cells, Dendritic cells) activate Helper T cells which in turn produce cytokines


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True cells.


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Helper T cells respond only to ____ ____ when it is presented by professional APCs in association with self-MHC class II molecules.

  • Processed antigens


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T/F presented by professional APCs in association with self-MHC class II molecules.

  • Interaction with an APC involves multiple TH cell membrane proteins that recognize different ligands on the APC


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True presented by professional APCs in association with self-MHC class II molecules.


Na ve t h cell activation requires two signals what is involved with signal 1 signal 2 l.jpg
Naïve T presented by professional APCs in association with self-MHC class II molecules.H cell activation requires two signals. What is involved with signal 1? Signal 2?

  • Signal 1:

  • TCR complex and CD4 recognition of peptide-MHC complexes on the APC

  • Signal 2:

  • Co-stimulation


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The best characterized co-stimulators for naïve T presented by professional APCs in association with self-MHC class II molecules.H cells, absent or expressed at low levels on resting APCs :

  • B7 proteins


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When does enhanced expression of B7 proteins occur? presented by professional APCs in association with self-MHC class II molecules.

  • When APCs are stimulated by endotoxins (LPS), and binding of T cell CD40L to CD40 on the APCs occur.


The ligand for b7 proteins is on the t h cell l.jpg
The ligand for B7 proteins is ____ on the T presented by professional APCs in association with self-MHC class II molecules.H cell.

  • CD28


Signaling by cd28 enhances several t h cell responses to antigen including the following l.jpg
Signaling by CD28 enhances several T presented by professional APCs in association with self-MHC class II molecules.H cell responses to antigen, including the following:

  • Production of cytokines

  • Differentiation of naïve T cells into effector cells


Of the professional apcs which cells are the most potent activators of na ve t h cells why l.jpg
Of the professional APCs, which cells are the most potent activators of naïve TH cells? Why?

  • Mature dendritic cells

  • B/C they express the most MHC molecules and co-stimulators.


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T/F activators of naïve T

  • CD40 is present all of the time on APCs


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True activators of naïve T


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T/F activators of naïve T

  • CD28 is always present on the T cell


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True activators of naïve T



Cd40l binds to cd40 on the apc and stimulates the expression of l.jpg
CD40L binds to CD40 on the APC and stimulates the expression of:

  • B7 molecules, which bind to:

  • CD28 on the helper T cell and the secretion of:

  • Cytokines that activate the:

  • Helper T cell


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T/F of:

  • Only signals from APC to the helper T cell are considered 1st and 2nd signals


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True of:


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If IL-2Rs are bound by IL-2 on the naïve helper T cell, what occurs?

  • The cell undergoes clonal expansion and differentiation of the daughter cells into effector cells or antigen-specific memory cells


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The differentiated effector T what occurs?H cells enter the circulation from the site of naïve TH cell activation and are carried to:

  • Peripheral tissues (lymphoid and nonlymphoid)


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The result of effector T what occurs?H cell activation is the synthesis of various:

  • Effector molecules


What are the effector molecules l.jpg
What are the effector molecules: what occurs?

  • CD40L

  • Cytokines



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T/F what occurs?

  • Effector cell responses decline following elimination of an antigen


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True what occurs?


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T/F what occurs?

  • The vast majority of antigen-activated T cells die by apoptosis within a few days


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True what occurs?


The decline in effector response is significant b c it returns the immune system to a state of l.jpg
The decline in effector response is significant b/c it returns the immune system to a state of:

  • Rest or Homeostasis


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What do macrophages require in order to become activated? returns the immune system to a state of:

  • Cytokines


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Clonal expansion occurs via what effect of cytokines? returns the immune system to a state of:

  • Autocrine


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Memory T returns the immune system to a state of:H cells, unlike effector cells, are:

  • Long-lived cells


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What do the memory T returns the immune system to a state of:H cells account for?

  • Increased and accelerated 2o responses on subsequent exposure to the same antigen


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T/F returns the immune system to a state of:

  • Memory TH cells are functionally quiescent until reexposure to the antigen induces them to proliferate and initiate effector functions


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True returns the immune system to a state of:


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Helper T cells are divided into: returns the immune system to a state of:

  • TH1 helper cells and TH2 helper cells


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Helper T cells divide on the basis of their: returns the immune system to a state of:

  • Production of and responses to specific cytokines


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T returns the immune system to a state of:H1 and TH2 subsets develop from the same:

  • Naïve CD4+ T lymphocytes [TH0] in the peripheral lymphoid organs


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T/F returns the immune system to a state of:

  • Thymus generates the TH0, TH1, and TH2


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False returns the immune system to a state of:

  • The thymus only generates the TH0


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When are cytokines produced? returns the immune system to a state of:

  • In the innate immune response to microorganisms or early in adaptive immune responses


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What influences the differentiation of naïve CD4 returns the immune system to a state of:+ T cells into TH1 or TH2 cells?

  • Cytokines


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T/F returns the immune system to a state of:

  • The cytokines produced by the TH1 and TH2 subsets exhibit cross-regulation


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True returns the immune system to a state of:

  • Cytokines from TH1 cells can block the production and/or activity of the cytokines secreted by TH2 cells and vice versa


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What is the consequence of cross-regulation? returns the immune system to a state of:

  • An immune response tends to settle into a TH1 type of response or a TH2 type of response


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What is the T returns the immune system to a state of:H1 subset responsible for?

  • Classical cell mediated immune functions, eg, delayed-type hypersensitivity and activation of cytolytic T lymphocytes


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What is the T returns the immune system to a state of:H2 subset mostly responsible for?

  • As a helper for B cell activation and antibody production


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Intracellular signaling proteins produced by cells that have autocrine, paracrine, or endocrine actions on themselves or other cells:

  • cytokines


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T/F autocrine, paracrine, or endocrine actions on themselves or other cells:

  • Cytokines usually act locally by binding to high affinity cytokine receptors


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True autocrine, paracrine, or endocrine actions on themselves or other cells:


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T/F autocrine, paracrine, or endocrine actions on themselves or other cells:

  • Cytokines are antigen specific and bind to antigens


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False autocrine, paracrine, or endocrine actions on themselves or other cells:

  • Cytokines are not antigen specific and they do not bind to antigens


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T/F autocrine, paracrine, or endocrine actions on themselves or other cells:

  • Cytokines are active at very high concentrations


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False autocrine, paracrine, or endocrine actions on themselves or other cells:

  • Cytokines are active at very low concentrations


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T/F autocrine, paracrine, or endocrine actions on themselves or other cells:

  • Cytokine secretion is a brief, self-limited event


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True autocrine, paracrine, or endocrine actions on themselves or other cells:


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T/F autocrine, paracrine, or endocrine actions on themselves or other cells:

  • Cytokines often influence the synthesis of other cytokines


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True autocrine, paracrine, or endocrine actions on themselves or other cells:


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T/F autocrine, paracrine, or endocrine actions on themselves or other cells:

  • Cytokine receptors can have circulating forms that block the cytokine before it reaches its cellular target


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True autocrine, paracrine, or endocrine actions on themselves or other cells:


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A single cytokine may have multiple activities: autocrine, paracrine, or endocrine actions on themselves or other cells:

  • Pleiotropism


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A single activity can be caused by multiple cytokines: autocrine, paracrine, or endocrine actions on themselves or other cells:

  • Redundancy




What are the sources for interleukin 1 il 1 l.jpg
What are the sources for cytokine:Interleukin-1 (IL-1)?

  • Activated macrophages

  • Endothelial cells

  • Langerhans cells

  • B cells

  • Epithelial cells


Which is the main source for il 1 l.jpg
Which is the main source for IL-1? cytokine:

  • Activated macrophages


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What is the function of IL-1alpha? cytokine:

  • It binds to the macrophage membrane, enabling macrophages to activate lymphocytes that come in contact with them


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What is the function of IL-1beta? cytokine:

  • It is secreted by cells, thus, most of the IL-1 found in circulation are IL-1beta.


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T/F cytokine:

  • Both forms of IL-1 bind to the same IL-1 receptors and mediate the same biologic activities


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True cytokine:


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This is a third form of IL-1 that binds to IL-1 receptors but is biologically inactive so that it functions as a competitive inhibitor of IL-1:

  • IL-1 receptor antagonist (IL-1ra)


What is the purpose of il 1ra l.jpg
What is the purpose of IL-1ra? but is biologically inactive so that it functions as a competitive inhibitor of IL-1:

  • It is an endogenous regulator that serves to prevent excessive IL-1 driven inflammatory response


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What are the principle activities of IL-1? but is biologically inactive so that it functions as a competitive inhibitor of IL-1:

  • Lymphocyte activation

  • Acts on endothelial cells to increase expression of adhesion molecules that mediate leukocyte extravasation and secrete chemokines that activate leukocytes

  • Acute-phase reaction—stimulates hepatocytes to synthesize increased levels of acute-phase proteins in response to inflammation

  • Nervous System—acts on brain to cause fever, lethargy, malaise, and lack of appetite

  • Initiates metabolic wasting


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T/F but is biologically inactive so that it functions as a competitive inhibitor of IL-1:

  • IL-1 acts on the thermoregulatory center in the anterior hypothalamus, resulting in prostaglandin-induced fever


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True but is biologically inactive so that it functions as a competitive inhibitor of IL-1:


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What is the main source of IL-2? but is biologically inactive so that it functions as a competitive inhibitor of IL-1:

  • TH1 cells


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What is another name for IL-2? but is biologically inactive so that it functions as a competitive inhibitor of IL-1:

  • Lymphocyte Growth Factor


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T/F but is biologically inactive so that it functions as a competitive inhibitor of IL-1:

  • Activation of T cells by antigens and co-stimulators, stimulates transcription of the IL-2 gene and synthesis and secretion of IL-2


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True but is biologically inactive so that it functions as a competitive inhibitor of IL-1:


What cells produce and secrete low levels of il 2 l.jpg
What cells produce and secrete low levels of IL-2? but is biologically inactive so that it functions as a competitive inhibitor of IL-1:

  • CD8+ T cells


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What are the principal activities of IL-2? but is biologically inactive so that it functions as a competitive inhibitor of IL-1:

  • T helper cells: Proliferation and increased cytokine production

  • Cytotoxic T cells: proliferation and differentiation to mature Tc cells

  • B cells: promotes B cell growth and antibody synthesis

  • NK cells: Proliferation and enhanced cytolytic activity


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What is the main source of IL-4? but is biologically inactive so that it functions as a competitive inhibitor of IL-1:

  • Activated TH2 cells


What are the principle activities of il 4 l.jpg
What are the principle activities of IL-4? but is biologically inactive so that it functions as a competitive inhibitor of IL-1:

  • Stimulates B cell differentiation and Ab synthesis

  • Down-regulates IFN-gamma synthesis by TH1 cells (inhibiting macrophage activation and suppressing cell-mediated immune responses)

  • Growth factor for mucosal mast cells


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What is the main source for IL-5? but is biologically inactive so that it functions as a competitive inhibitor of IL-1:

  • Activated TH2 cells


What are the principle activities of il 5 l.jpg
What are the principle activities of IL-5? but is biologically inactive so that it functions as a competitive inhibitor of IL-1:

  • Functions synergistically with IL-2 and IL-4 in B cell growth and differentiation

  • The principle cytokine that stimulates growth and differentiation of eosinophils, activation of mature eosinophils


What is the main source for il 6 l.jpg
What is the main source for IL-6? but is biologically inactive so that it functions as a competitive inhibitor of IL-1:

  • Activated macrophages


What are the principle activities of il 6 l.jpg
What are the principle activities of IL-6? but is biologically inactive so that it functions as a competitive inhibitor of IL-1:

  • Promotes IL-2 and IL-2R production and T cell differentiation

  • Differentiation of B cells into plasma cells and Ab production

  • Stimulates synthesis of acute-phase proteins


What is the main source for il 10 l.jpg
What is the main source for IL-10? but is biologically inactive so that it functions as a competitive inhibitor of IL-1:

  • Activated macrophages


What are the principal activities of il 10 l.jpg
What are the principal activities of IL-10? but is biologically inactive so that it functions as a competitive inhibitor of IL-1:

  • Immunoregulatory cytokine that immunosuppresses CMI responses

  • Inhibits synthesis of IFN-gamma

  • Inhibits macrophage production

  • Inhibits the expression of MHC II molecules and co-stimulators on macrophages—inhibiting T cell activation


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What is the main source for IL-12? but is biologically inactive so that it functions as a competitive inhibitor of IL-1:

  • Activated macrophages


What are the principle activities of il 12 l.jpg
What are the principle activities of IL-12? but is biologically inactive so that it functions as a competitive inhibitor of IL-1:

  • Counterpoint to IL-10

  • Stimulates the induction of TH1 subset from naïve CD4+ T cells

  • Stimulates production of IFN-gamma

  • Activates macrophages

  • Inhibits IgE isotype switch by suppressing IL-4 synthesis


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What is the main source for Tumor Necrosis Factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)

  • LPS-activated macrophages


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What are the principle functions of TNF-alpha? (TNF-alpha)

  • Overlaps w/ IL-1 and IL-4 as acute-inflammatory response of hepatocytes and endogenous pyogen—fever

  • Expression of adhesion molecules and synthesis of chemokines

  • Activates neutrophils and macrophages

  • Causes pathologic abnormalities if prolonged production or high concentration


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What are some examples of pathologic abnormalities resulting in prolonged production or high concentrations of TNF-alpha?

  • Intravascular thrombosis

  • Cachexia

  • Septic shock (observed in G- septicemia)


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TNF stimulated endothelial cell expression of tissue factor, a potent activator of coagulation. Occurs in tumor vessels accounting for it’s tumor killing activity:

  • Intravascular thrombosis


Characterized by wasting of muscles and fat cells l.jpg
Characterized by wasting of muscles and fat cells: a potent activator of coagulation. Occurs in tumor vessels accounting for it’s tumor killing activity:

  • Cachexia

  • TNF is referred to as “cachectin”


Very large amounts of tnf result in l.jpg
Very large amounts of TNF result in: a potent activator of coagulation. Occurs in tumor vessels accounting for it’s tumor killing activity:

  • Inhibition of muscle tone and cardiac contractility

  • Decreased BP

  • Shock



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What are the principle functions of TGF-B? (TGF-B)?

  • Inhibits immune and inflammatory responses

  • Inhibits proliferation and differentiation of T cells and the activation of macrophages

  • Acts on neutrophils, endothelial cells, and other cell types to counteract the effects of production of IgA Ab

  • Enhances synth. Of extracellular matrix proteins such as collagens and proteins, proliferation of fibroblasts, promoting TISSUE REPAIR


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A family of glycoproteins synthesized by somatic cells in response to virus stimulation, immune stimulation, mitogens, LPS, and synthetic dsRNA:

  • Interferons


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Type of IFNs which inhibit virus replication and increase expression of MHC class I molecules. They also inhibit the proliferation of many cell types, including tumor cells:

  • Type I Interferons


Type i interferons are divided into two forms l.jpg
Type I Interferons are divided into two forms: expression of MHC class I molecules. They also inhibit the proliferation of many cell types, including tumor cells:

  • Interferon-alpha

  • Interferon-beta


Interferon alpha are secreted by l.jpg
Interferon-alpha are secreted by: expression of MHC class I molecules. They also inhibit the proliferation of many cell types, including tumor cells:

  • Macrophages and other leukocytes


Interferon beta is secreted by l.jpg
Interferon-beta is secreted by: expression of MHC class I molecules. They also inhibit the proliferation of many cell types, including tumor cells:

  • Fibroblasts and epithelial cells


What are the main sources of interferon gamma type ii interferon immune interferon l.jpg
What are the main sources of Interferon-gamma (Type II Interferon; Immune interferon):

  • TH1 cells, CD8+ T cells, and NK cells


What are the principle activities of interferon gamma l.jpg
What are the principle activities of Interferon-gamma? Interferon; Immune interferon):

  • Principal activator of macrophages

  • Induces Class I and II MHC expression

  • Promotes B cell IgG isotype switch

  • Promotes proliferation and cytolytic activities of NK cells and Tc cells

  • Acts on TH2 cells to inhibit production of IL-4, blocking IgE isotype switch by B cells


What are the growth hematopoietic cytokines l.jpg
What are the Growth (Hematopoietic) Cytokines? Interferon; Immune interferon):

  • IL-3

  • IL-7

  • Granulocyte macrophage-colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF)

  • Monocyte-colony stimulating factor

    (M-CSF)

  • Granulocyte-colony stimulating factor

    (G-CSF)

  • Stem Cell Factor (SCF)


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What are the sources for IL-3? Interferon; Immune interferon):

  • Activated T cells, mast cells, etc.


What is the primary activity of il 3 l.jpg
What is the primary activity of IL-3? Interferon; Immune interferon):

  • Promotes growth and differentiation of stem cells into all known mature cell types


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What are the sources of IL-7? Interferon; Immune interferon):

  • Bone marrow and thymic stromal cells


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What is the primary activity of IL-7? Interferon; Immune interferon):

  • Growth of immature thymocytes and pre-B cells


What are the genetically engineered hematopoietic cytokines l.jpg
What are the genetically engineered hematopoietic cytokines? Interferon; Immune interferon):

  • GM-CSF

  • M-CSF

  • G-CSF


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What are the sources of the genetically engineered hematopoietic cytokines?

  • Activated T cells

  • Macrophages

  • Endothelial cells

  • Bone marrow stromal cells


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What are the primary activities of the genetically engineered hematopoietic cytokines?

  • Production of inflammatory leukocytes from bone marrow progenitor cells

  • Recombinant GM-CSF and G-CSF are used clinically to stimulate bone marrow recovery after cancer chemotherapy and bone marrow transplants


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What is the source of Stem Cell factor (SCF)? engineered hematopoietic cytokines?

  • Bone marrow stromal cells as a transmembrane protein or a secreted protein


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What are the primary activities of stem cell factors (SCFs)? engineered hematopoietic cytokines?

  • May be needed to make bone marrow stem cells responsive to other CSFs but that it does not cause colony formation by itself

  • May play a role in sustaining the viability and proliferative capacity of immature T cells in the thymus and of mast cells in mucosal tissues


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Large family of small proteins that are involved in migration and activation of cells, especially phagocytic cells and lymphocytes. They play a role in inflammatory rxns:

  • Chemokines


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What cells produce chemokines? migration and activation of cells, especially phagocytic cells and lymphocytes. They play a role in inflammatory rxns:

  • Leukocytes

  • Fibroblasts

  • Endothelial cells

  • Epithelial cells


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What induces the secretion of chemokines from these cells? migration and activation of cells, especially phagocytic cells and lymphocytes. They play a role in inflammatory rxns:

  • Pathogens

  • Inflammatory cytokines, principally TNF-alpha and IL-1


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Chemokines bind to ______ _____ _______ on endothelial cells and extracellular matrix proteins; in turn, they are recognized by chemokine receptors on leukocytes.

  • Heparan sulfate proteoglycans


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Chemokines are classified into two subfamilies based on the sequence of two pairs of the amino acid:

  • cysteine


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What are the two subfamilies for chemokines? sequence of two pairs of the amino acid:

  • CXC chemokines (alpha-chemokines)

  • CC chemokines (beta-chemokines)


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Which subfamily of chemokines have their first two cysteines separated by one amino acid?

  • CXC chemokines (alpha chemokines)


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CXC (alpha) chemokines mostly attract and activate: separated by one amino acid?

  • Neutrophils

  • The most important is:

  • IL-8


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CC (beta) chemokines mostly attract and activate: separated by one amino acid?

  • Monocytes

  • Lymphocytes

  • Eosinophils


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T/F separated by one amino acid?

  • High concentrations of cytokines or chronic exposure to a cytokine, can result in various toxicities


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True separated by one amino acid?


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High does of interferons can result in: separated by one amino acid?

  • Severe fever

  • Malaise

  • Inappetance


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High does of interferons also inhibit hematopoiesis resulting in:

  • Thrombocytopenia and granulocytopenia

  • Liver, kidney, and neural toxicity


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High levels of IL-2 results in: resulting in:

  • Fever

  • Chills

  • Vascular leak syndrome—resulting in excessive edema


Enterotoxins produced by some strains of s aureus can act as and trigger polyclonal t cell response l.jpg
Enterotoxins produced by some strains of S. aureus can act as _______ and trigger polyclonal T cell response:

  • superantigens


Cytokines produced by these cells eg tnf alpha can cause l.jpg
Cytokines produced by these cells (eg. TNF-alpha) can cause: as _______ and trigger polyclonal T cell response:

  • Fever

  • Hypotension

  • Damage to the liver and kidney


Exam questions l.jpg
EXAM QUESTIONS: as _______ and trigger polyclonal T cell response:

  • These are the answers that were on the exams, so I think they are right, but I didn’t look them up, so…ya know…check them if you think otherwise.


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T/F as _______ and trigger polyclonal T cell response:

  • B cells only process antigens trapped by dendritic cells

  • False


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T/F as _______ and trigger polyclonal T cell response:

  • A function of IL-1 is activation of endothelial cells, resulting in increased expression of adhesion molecules such as ICAM-1

  • True


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T/F as _______ and trigger polyclonal T cell response:

  • An individual T cell expresses both alpha/beta [TCR2] and gamma/delta [TCR1] receptors

  • False


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T/F as _______ and trigger polyclonal T cell response:

  • 1o and 2o granules are present in both neutrophils and macrophages

  • False


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T/F as _______ and trigger polyclonal T cell response:

  • Genes in the MHC complex code for some complement proteins

  • True


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T/F as _______ and trigger polyclonal T cell response:

  • High endothelial venules, site of extravasation of lymphocytes, are present in lymph nodes but not in the spleen


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True as _______ and trigger polyclonal T cell response:


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T/F as _______ and trigger polyclonal T cell response:

  • Rolling of leukocytes along vascular endothelium is observed only at sites of inflammation

  • False


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T/F as _______ and trigger polyclonal T cell response:

  • B cell receptors present on a resting mature B cell consists of pentameric IgM and IgD

  • False


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T/F as _______ and trigger polyclonal T cell response:

  • A function of S protein is the prevention of “bystander” lysis during complement activation

  • True


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T/F as _______ and trigger polyclonal T cell response:

  • LPS is an antigen that requires processing to generate anti-LPS antibodies

  • False


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T/F as _______ and trigger polyclonal T cell response:

  • A synonym for NK cells is large granular lymphocytes

  • True


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T/F as _______ and trigger polyclonal T cell response:

  • B cell isotype switching occurs only when responding to protein antigens

  • True


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T/F as _______ and trigger polyclonal T cell response:

  • A major source of complement proteins is neutrophils

  • False



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Following a 1o antigen injection, there is an Ab response that consists most of __; the response following a 2o response challenge is mostly __.

  • IgM

  • IgG


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Source of the secretory component in sIgA: that consists most of __; the response following a 2o response challenge is mostly __.

  • Epithelial cells


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Following antigenic stimulation, resulting daugher B cells become ______ or _________.

  • Memory cells or plasma cells


The four phases of antibody response following antigenic challenge in order are and l.jpg
The four phases of antibody response following antigenic challenge, in order, are ____, ____, ____, and ____.

  • Lag

  • Log

  • Plateau

  • Decline


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Cytokines regulating IgA isotype switch are ____ and _____. challenge, in order, are ____, ____, ____, and ____.

  • IL-5 and TGF-B


In a lymph node b cells mainly populate the whereas t cells are found in the l.jpg
In a lymph node, B cells mainly populate the ____ whereas T cells are found in the _____.

  • Cortex

  • Paracortex


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The portion of an Ab that binds C1q protein ______. cells are found in the _____.

  • Fc portion


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Cytokines that stimulate hepatocytes to release acute-phase proteins include ____ and ____.

  • IL-1 and TNF-alpha


Define the following 2 pts each l.jpg
Define the following (2 pts each): proteins include ____ and ____.

  • C3 tickover

  • Defensins

  • Immunologic redundancy


The following are acute phase proteins synthesized by hepatocytes except l.jpg
The following are acute-phase proteins synthesized by hepatocytes except:

  • A. C-reactive protein

  • B. Haptoglobin

  • C. Complement proteins

  • D. siderophore


Slide346 l.jpg


An incorrect statement concerning the complement system l.jpg
An incorrect statement concerning the complement system: hepatocytes except:

  • A. Alternative pathway proteins include factors B, D, and properdin

  • B. Sequence of classical pathway activation is C1, C4, and C2

  • C. Inactivation of C3b first requires the binding of factor I followed by inactivation of factor H

  • D. May result in disseminated intravascular coagulation


C inactivation of c3b first requires the binding of factor i followed by inactivation of factor h l.jpg
C. Inactivation of C3b first requires the binding of factor I followed by inactivation of factor H


Which of the following is not a source of il 1 l.jpg
Which of the following is not a source of IL-1? I followed by inactivation of factor H

  • A. Macrophages

  • B cells

  • C. Dendritic cells

  • D. T helper cells


D t helper cells l.jpg
D. T helper cells I followed by inactivation of factor H


Slide351 l.jpg
A cytokine which acts as an angiogenesis factor, fibroblast growth factor can result in wasting of muscles and fat cells.

  • A. IL-2

  • B. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha

  • C. Interferon gamma

  • D. IL-1


B tumor necrosis factor alpha l.jpg
B. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha growth factor can result in wasting of muscles and fat cells.


Which of the following is not a lymphocyte l.jpg
Which of the following is not a lymphocyte? growth factor can result in wasting of muscles and fat cells.

  • A. NK cell

  • B. Dendritic cell

  • C. T cell

  • D. B cell


B dendritic cell l.jpg
B. Dendritic cell growth factor can result in wasting of muscles and fat cells.


Bacterial structure that protects g bacteria from complement lysis l.jpg
Bacterial structure that protects G+ bacteria from complement lysis:

  • A. Peptidoglycan

  • B. Lipoprotein

  • C. LPS

  • D. Teichoic acid


A peptidoglycan l.jpg
A. Peptidoglycan complement lysis:


The following are mhc class i genes except l.jpg
The following are MHC class I genes except: complement lysis:

  • A. HLA-A

  • B. HLA-B

  • C. HLA-C

  • D. HLA-D


D hla d l.jpg
D. HLA-D complement lysis:


Sources of passive immunity include all of the following except l.jpg
Sources of passive immunity include all of the following except:

  • A. Vaccination

  • B. Hyperimmune serum

  • C. Colostrum

  • D. Egg yolk



Approximate molecular size of an epitope l.jpg
Approximate molecular size of an epitope: except:

  • A. 3,000 daltons

  • B. 5,000 daltons

  • C. 7,000 daltons

  • D. 10,000 daltons



Which of the following statements is least accurate concerning il 1 l.jpg
Which of the following statements is least accurate concerning IL-1?

  • A. IL-1alpha is the form of IL-1 found in tissue fluids

  • B. IL-1 is involved in the development of fever by increasing PGE2 in the hypothalamus

  • C. IL-1 is a family of 3 cytokines, consisting of 2 agonists [IL-1alpha and IL-1beta] and one antagonist [IL-1ra]

  • D. An important action of IL-1 is as a mediator for the antigen recognition and clonal expansion phases of T and B cells.



Which ab is susceptible to b mercaptoethanol degradation l.jpg
Which Ab is susceptible to B-mercaptoethanol degradation? concerning IL-1?

  • A. IgA

  • B. IgG

  • C. IgM

  • D. IgE


C igm l.jpg
C. IgM concerning IL-1?


Match the following receptors with their corresponding ligands l.jpg
Match the following receptors with their corresponding ligands:

  • 1. CD8

  • 2. CD2

  • 3. B-7

  • 4. C3b

  • Choices: CD28, CD40, CD35, MHC II, CD58, MHC I


Slide368 l.jpg

  • 1. MHC I ligands:

  • 2. CD58

  • 3. CD28

  • 4. CD35


Slide369 l.jpg
T/F ligands:

  • Extravasation of neutrophils during acute inflammation occurs mainly at postcapillary venules

  • True


Slide370 l.jpg
T/F ligands:

  • Integrin proteins used by leukocytes during transendothelial migration are mostly nonfunctional, requiring an activation signal from the endothelial cell to become active

  • True


Slide371 l.jpg
T/F ligands:

  • Antibodies produced to a hapten can bind to the hapten only if the hapten is still conjugated to the carrier protein

  • False (free or conjugated)


Slide372 l.jpg
T/F ligands:

  • Highly flexible molecules that have no fixed shape are poor antigens

  • True


Slide373 l.jpg
T/F ligands:

  • Human MHC class I genes include HLA-A, HLA-E, and HLA-D genes

  • False (HLA-D are class II)


Slide374 l.jpg
T/F ligands:

  • LPS is a potent activator of macrophages and B lymphocytes

  • False??


Slide375 l.jpg
T/F ligands:

  • Macrophages are an important source of complement proteins and angiogenesis factor

  • True


Slide376 l.jpg
T/F ligands:

  • Processed epitope presented by APC is recognized by the CD4 molecule of the antigen receptor complex of the T helper cell

  • ???


Slide377 l.jpg
T/F ligands:

  • Differentiation of precursor cytotoxic T cell to functional or mature cytotoxic cell occurs in the thymus

  • True???


Slide378 l.jpg
T/F ligands:

  • High endothelial venules (HEV) facilitate extravasation of blood lymphocytes into peripheral lymph nodes

  • True


Slide379 l.jpg
T/F ligands:

  • The most important function of sIgA is as an anitgoxin

  • False


Slide380 l.jpg
T/F ligands:

  • Chemical mediators produced at the site of inflammation, generally, have short tissue half-lives

  • True


Slide381 l.jpg
T/F ligands:

  • Plasma proteins important in host immune response include gamma globulin, complement, and albumin

  • False (albumin is not important in immunity!)






Mhc molecule complexed with b 2 microglobulin l.jpg
MHC molecule complexed with B of lymph nodes.2-microglobulin: ______

  • MHC I



Antibody produced in the highest concentration following initial contact with antigen l.jpg
Antibody produced in the highest concentration following initial contact with antigen: ____.

  • IgM


Slide389 l.jpg

Neutrophil proteins that kill microbes by interacting with the microbial cell membrane to form channels through which essential metabolites escape: _______.

  • defensins



Central lymphoid organs in avian species include and l.jpg
Central lymphoid organs in avian species include ____ and _____.

  • Thymus and Bursa of Fabricius (BF)


Define or explain the following 2 points each l.jpg
Define or explain the following (2 points each): _____.

  • Iccosomes

  • Antibody affinity

  • Isotype switching


Which of the following is not a source of immune regulatory cytokines l.jpg
Which of the following is not a source of immune regulatory cytokines?

  • A. T cells

  • B. Macrophages

  • C. Neutrophils

  • D. NK cells


C neutrophils l.jpg
C. Neutrophils cytokines?


Which complement protein is associated with platelet aggregation l.jpg
Which complement protein is associated with platelet aggregation?

  • A. C3b

  • B. C4b

  • C. C5a

  • D. Factor D


A c3b l.jpg
A. C3b aggregation?


Which of the following is not a target for il 1 l.jpg
Which of the following is not a target for IL-1? aggregation?

  • A. Hypothalamus

  • B. Liver

  • C. Endothelial cells

  • D. Mast cells


D mast cells l.jpg
D. Mast cells aggregation?


Long term antigen retention in the splenic follicles is mediated by l.jpg
Long-term antigen retention in the splenic follicles is mediated by:

  • A. B cells

  • B. Dendritic cells

  • C. Macrophages

  • D. T cells


B dendritic cells l.jpg
B. Dendritic cells mediated by:


Slide401 l.jpg
Together with antigen, the following can induce resting helper T cells to produce IL-2 and IL-2R except:

  • A. IL-5

  • B. IL-1

  • C. IL-12

  • D. B7-1


A il 5 l.jpg
A. IL-5 helper T cells to produce IL-2 and IL-2R except:


Which antibody molecule possesses a j chain l.jpg
Which antibody molecule possesses a J chain? helper T cells to produce IL-2 and IL-2R except:

  • A. IgA

  • B. IgG

  • C. IgE

  • D. IgD


A iga l.jpg
A. IgA helper T cells to produce IL-2 and IL-2R except:


The following are produced or expressed by endothelial cells except l.jpg
The following are produced or expressed by endothelial cells except:

  • A. E-selectin

  • B. VCAM-1

  • C. L-selectin

  • D. ICAM 1


C l selectin l.jpg
C. L-selectin except:


Which cytokine inhibits ige production l.jpg
Which cytokine inhibits IgE production? except:

  • A. IL-2

  • B. Interferon-gamma

  • C. Tumor necrosis factor-B

  • D. IL-4



Which ab possesses the most antigen binding sites l.jpg
Which Ab possesses the most antigen-binding sites? except:

  • A. IgA

  • B. IgE

  • C. IgG

  • D. IgM


D igm l.jpg
D. IgM except:


Mononuclear cells important in host defense include the following except l.jpg
Mononuclear cells important in host defense include the following except:

  • A. NK cells

  • B. Neutrophils

  • C. B cells

  • D. Macrophages


B neutrophils l.jpg
B. Neutrophils following except:


Concerning dendritic cells which statement is least accurate l.jpg
Concerning dendritic cells, which statement is least accurate?

  • A. Mononuclear cells with spine-like projections

  • B. Produce MHC II proteins

  • C. Possess Fc receptors

  • D. Presents antigens only to B cells



Concerning interferon gamma which statement is least accurate l.jpg
Concerning interferon-gamma, which statement is least accurate?

  • A. Secreted by activated helper T cells, macrophages, and NK cells

  • B. A potent activator of macrophages

  • C. Promotes Ab production by B cells

  • D. Increases synthesis of MHC class I by nucleated cells



Antibody which crosses the placenta in some species l.jpg
Antibody which crosses the placenta in some species: NK cells

  • A. IgA

  • B. IgE

  • C. IgG

  • D. IgM


C igg l.jpg
C. IgG NK cells


Slide419 l.jpg
Protein A produced by the bacterium binds to the Fc portion of IgG, enhancing colonization by preventing opsonization.

  • A. Streptococcus pyogenes

  • B. Staphylococcus aureus

  • C. Mycobacterium bovis

  • D. Listeria monocytogenes


B staphylococcus aureus l.jpg
B. Staphylococcus aureus of IgG, enhancing colonization by preventing opsonization.


The classical pathway of complement activation occurs when or antibodies bind to the target antigen l.jpg
The classical pathway of complement activation occurs when ___ or ___ antibodies bind to the target antigen.

  • IgG or IgM


Slide422 l.jpg

Refers to the increase in the binding strength of antibodies produced during the course of a humeral immune response as a result of somatic mutations.

  • Affinity maturation


Slide423 l.jpg

Anaphylatoxins that serve to recruit fluid and inflammatory cells to sites of antigen invasion by stimulating mast cell degranulation includes ___ and ___.

  • C5a and C3a (????)



Costimulatory molecules of helper t cells derived from antigen presenting cells include and l.jpg
Costimulatory molecules of helper T cells derived from antigen-presenting cells include ___ and __.

  • IL-1 and IL-6


Immunoglobulin molecule that facilitates the binding of nk cell to a virus infected cell l.jpg
Immunoglobulin molecule that facilitates the binding of NK cell to a virus infected cell: _____.

  • IgG


Antigen presenting cell also known as interdigitating dendritic cell l.jpg
Antigen presenting cell also known as interdigitating dendritic cell: ___.

  • Langerhans cell



Slide429 l.jpg
T/F _____

  • Vasoactive mediators of inflammation are derived exclusively from the injured tissue

  • False


Slide430 l.jpg
T/F _____

  • Compared to the resting mature B cell, a higher dose of antigen is required to activate memory B cells.

  • False


Slide431 l.jpg
T/F _____

  • Most cytokines have multiple activities and act on numerous cell types.

  • True


Slide432 l.jpg
T/F _____

  • Membrane immunoglobulins act as B cell receptors [BCRs] on mature B lymphocytes

  • True


Slide433 l.jpg
T/F _____

  • Integrin proteins present on nonactivated neutrophils have low affinity for immunoglobulin superfamily proteins on endothelial cells

  • True


Slide434 l.jpg
T/F _____

  • B cells and other professional presenting cells partially degrade the antigen and present peptide epitopes or polysaccharide epitopes in association with MHC II proteins to helper T cells

  • False


Slide435 l.jpg
T/F _____

  • A memory immune response has a shorter lag period compared to a primary immune response

  • True


Slide436 l.jpg
T/F _____

  • In the thymus, production of T cells occurs predominantly in the medulla

  • False


Slide437 l.jpg
T/F _____

  • Cell-mediated immune responses are more significant in the elimination of intracellular parasites

  • True


Slide438 l.jpg
T/F _____

  • The alternative complement pathway can be activated by bacterial LPS

  • True


Slide439 l.jpg
T/F _____

  • A distinguishing feature between neutrophils and macrophages in their microbicidal activities is that neutrophils can generate a respiratory burst whereas macrophages cannot

  • False


Slide440 l.jpg
T/F _____

  • Cytokines secreted by lymphocytes are called lymphokines

  • True


Slide441 l.jpg
T/F _____

  • During embryonic development, primary lymphoid organs appear before secondary lymphoid organs

  • True


Slide442 l.jpg
T/F _____

  • The inactivation of activated complement components occurs by spontaneous decay, owing to the action of natural inhibitors in the serum

  • True


Which class of immunoglobulins is produced first in response to antigen l.jpg
Which class of immunoglobulins is produced first in response to antigen?

  • A. IgA

  • B. IgE

  • C. IgG

  • D. IgM


D igm444 l.jpg
D. IgM to antigen?


All of the following complement components are required in the alternative pathway except l.jpg
All of the following complement components are required in the alternative pathway except:

  • A. C1, C2, C4

  • B. C5, C6, C7

  • C. Properdin

  • D. C3


A c1 c2 c4 l.jpg
A. C1, C2, C4 the alternative pathway except:


The following properties render a substance immunogenic l.jpg
The following properties render a substance immunogenic: the alternative pathway except:

  • A. High molecular weight

  • B. Chemical complexity

  • C. Sufficient stability and persistence after injection

  • D. All of the above are essential but not sufficient



Concerning haptens which statement is least accurate l.jpg
Concerning haptens, which statement is least accurate? the alternative pathway except:

  • A. Require carrier molecules in order to be immunogenic

  • B. They are generally low MW substances

  • C. Some haptens can bind to host cell proteins in vivo

  • D. Will not react with specific antibodies in vitro unless bound to the carrier protein



Resting helper t cells can be activated by all of the following except l.jpg
Resting helper T cells can be activated by all of the following except:

  • A. Langerhans cells

  • B. Neutrophils

  • C. B cells

  • D. Macrophages


B neutrophils452 l.jpg
B. Neutrophils following except:


Which cell can generate a memory cell l.jpg
Which cell can generate a memory cell? following except:

  • A. NK cells

  • B. T cell

  • C. Macrophage

  • D. Eosinophil


B t cell l.jpg
B. T cell following except:


The liver can enhance host defense in multiple ways except being l.jpg
The liver can enhance host defense in multiple ways except being:

  • A. A source of complement proteins

  • B. A source of iron-binding proteins

  • C. A source of lymphocytes in the developing fetus

  • D. A source of cytokines



The d region of the mhc codes for l.jpg
The D region of the MHC codes for: being:

  • A. Class I molecules

  • B. Class II molecules

  • C. Class III molecules

  • D. Class IV molecules



The rise in temperature that causes a fever is due to the hypothalamus responding to l.jpg
The rise in temperature that causes a fever is due to the hypothalamus responding to:

  • A. IL-1

  • B. G+ bacteria

  • C. Complement

  • D. IL-2


A il 1 l.jpg
A. IL-1 hypothalamus responding to:


The class specific amino acids of immunoglobulins are associated with l.jpg
The class-specific amino acids of immunoglobulins are associated with:

  • A. J chains

  • B. Disulfide bonds

  • C. H chains

  • D. Variable regions


C h chains l.jpg
C. H chains associated with:


An incorrect statement concerning nk cells is l.jpg
An incorrect statement concerning NK cells is: associated with:

  • A. They are lymphocytes

  • B. They produce cytokines

  • C. They express CD8 molecules

  • D. They produce cytolytic proteins such as perforins and granzymes



Concerning macrophages which statement is least accurate l.jpg
Concerning macrophages, which statement is least accurate? associated with:

  • A. They produce cytokines such as IL-2 and interferon gamma

  • B. They arise from monocytes

  • C. They play a role in the specific immune response

  • D. They synthesize and release inflammatory mediators such as prostaglandins and leukotrienes



Which antibody is protected from proteolytic degradation by the secretory component l.jpg
Which antibody is protected from proteolytic degradation by the secretory component?

  • A. IgA

  • B. IgE

  • C. IgG

  • D. IgM


A iga468 l.jpg
A. IgA the secretory component?


Mhc class i molecules l.jpg
MHC class I molecules: the secretory component?

  • A. Regulate interaction btwn cytotoxic T cells and target cells

  • B. Restrict activity of regulatory T cells and target cells

  • C. Regulate interaction bwtn helper T cells and antigen-presenting cells

  • D. Represent components of the complement pathways



An incorrect statement concerning complement protein c3b is l.jpg
An incorrect statement concerning complement protein C3b is: cells

  • A. It is an anaphylatoxin

  • B. It can bind to factor B

  • C. It is an opsonin

  • D. It can bind to C5 protein



Iga isotype switching by daughter b cells is regulated by l.jpg
IgA isotype switching by daughter B cells is regulated by: cells

  • A. IL-2, IL-4, and IL-6

  • B. Interferon gamma and IL-1

  • C. IL-4 and IL-12

  • D. TGF-B and Il-5



Slide475 l.jpg
A bacterial cell that survives and multiplies in macrophages by preventing formation of the phagolysosome:

  • A. E. coli

  • B. Listeria monocytogenes

  • C. Mycobacterium bovis

  • D. Staphylococcus aureus


D staphylococcus aureus l.jpg
D. Staphylococcus aureus by preventing formation of the phagolysosome:


Oxygen dependent antimicrobial products of neutrophils include all of the following except l.jpg
Oxygen-dependent antimicrobial products of neutrophils include all of the following except:

  • A. Superoxide anion

  • B. Lactoferrin

  • C. H2O2

  • D. Singlet oxygen


B lactoferrin l.jpg
B. Lactoferrin include all of the following except:


Slide479 l.jpg
T/F include all of the following except:

  • Helper T cell-derived signals that activate B cells include cytokines and CD40L

  • True


Slide480 l.jpg
T/F include all of the following except:

  • Antigenic determinant or epitope is a specific region on an antibody that binds to the antigen

  • False


Slide481 l.jpg
T/F include all of the following except:

  • B cell mitogens used in vitro to study the functional status of B cells include condanavalin A

  • False


Slide482 l.jpg
T/F include all of the following except:

  • B cell receptors (BCRs) present on a resting B cell consist of IgD and pentameric IgM

  • False


Slide483 l.jpg
T/F include all of the following except:

  • Interferon-gamma is a potent activator of macrophages

  • True


Slide484 l.jpg
T/F include all of the following except:

  • Only protein antigens are processed and presented by antigen presenting cells

  • False (?)


Slide485 l.jpg
T/F include all of the following except:

  • The effector phase of an immune response follows the recognition and activation phases, and results in inactivation or destruction of the foreign antigen

  • True


Slide486 l.jpg
T/F include all of the following except:

  • For an autocoupling hapten to elicit an immune response in the host, it must first be bound to a carrier protein in vitro and then conjugate introduced into the host cell

  • False (in vivo)


Slide487 l.jpg
T/F include all of the following except:

  • Memory B cells express B cell receptors that have undergone affinity maturation, hence are activated by low antigenic dose

  • True


Slide488 l.jpg
T/F include all of the following except:

  • MHC class II proteins can be demonstrated on the cell membranes of every nucleated cell in the body

  • False


Slide489 l.jpg
T/F include all of the following except:

  • IgG molecules can activate the complement system only when they are first bound to an antigen

  • True


Slide490 l.jpg
T/F include all of the following except:

  • T cell receptors (TCRs) on a specific T cell are clonotypic

  • True


Slide491 l.jpg
T/F include all of the following except:

  • Genes in the class III loci of the MHC code for tumor necrosis factor and some complement proteins

  • True


The basic structure of an antibody molecule is composed of two identical and two identical l.jpg
The basic structure of an antibody molecule is composed of two identical _____ and two identical ______.

  • Heavy chains

  • Light chains


Virus infected cells displaying reduced or no mhc class i proteins are lysed by l.jpg
Virus-infected cells displaying reduced or no MHC class I proteins are lysed by: _______.

  • CD8+ T cells


In the classical pathway of complement activation the substrates for the cls enzme are and l.jpg
In the classical pathway of complement activation, the substrates for the Cls enzme are __ and __.

  • C4 and C2



In b cell response to a foreign antigen daughter b cells eventually differentiate into and l.jpg
In B cell response to a foreign antigen, daughter B cells eventually differentiate into ___ and ___.

  • Plasma cells and memory cells




Plasma proteins involved in host defense include and l.jpg
Plasma proteins involved in host defense include ___ and ____.

  • Immunoglobulins

  • Complement proteins


Which of the following events cannot be attributed to an activated endothelial cell l.jpg
Which of the following events cannot be attributed to an activated endothelial cell?

  • A. Synthesis of histamine

  • B. Expression of P selectin

  • C. Synthesis of cytokines

  • D. Ability to retract


A synthesis of histamine l.jpg
A. Synthesis of histamine activated endothelial cell?


Slide502 l.jpg
The highest rate of Ab production occurs during which of the following phases of humoral immune response?

  • A. Lag phase

  • B. Logarithmic phase

  • C. Plateau phase

  • D. Decline phase


B logarithmic phase l.jpg
B. Logarithmic phase following phases of humoral immune response?


Which ab is able to cross the placenta in some species l.jpg
Which Ab is able to cross the placenta in some species? following phases of humoral immune response?

  • A. IgA

  • B. IgE

  • C. IgG

  • D. IgM


C igg505 l.jpg
C. IgG following phases of humoral immune response?


Which ab is most efficient in agglutinating bacteria l.jpg
Which Ab is most efficient in agglutinating bacteria? following phases of humoral immune response?

  • A. IgA

  • B. IgE

  • C. IgG

  • D. IgM


D igm507 l.jpg
D. IgM following phases of humoral immune response?


Slide508 l.jpg
In mammalian immunologic development, the precursors of lymphocytes arise from progenitor cells of the:

  • A. Yolk sac

  • B. Thymus

  • C. Liver

  • D. Both a and c


D both a and c l.jpg
D. Both a and c lymphocytes arise from progenitor cells of the:


Aids is caused by a human lentivirus that kills l.jpg
AIDs is caused by a human lentivirus that kills: lymphocytes arise from progenitor cells of the:

  • A. B lymphocytes

  • B. Lymphocyte stem cells

  • C. CD4-positive T lymphocytes

  • D. CD8-positive T lymphocytes


C cd4 positive t lymphocytes l.jpg
C. CD4-positive T lymphocytes lymphocytes arise from progenitor cells of the:


Complement activation refers to l.jpg
Complement activation refers to: lymphocytes arise from progenitor cells of the:

  • A. The ingestion of C3b-coated bacteria by macrophages

  • B. The destruction of complement in serum by heating at 56 oC for 30 minutes

  • C. The binding of complement components by antigen-antibody complexes

  • D. The interaction of C3b with mast cells



Which ab is destroyed when serum is heated at 56 o c for 30 minutes l.jpg
Which Ab is destroyed when serum is heated at 56 complexesoC for 30 minutes?

  • A. IgA

  • B. IgE

  • C. IgG

  • D. IgM


B ige l.jpg
B. IgE complexes


Natural killer cells are l.jpg
Natural killer cells are: complexes

  • A. B cells that can kill w/o comlement

  • B. Cytotoxic T cells

  • C. Monocytes that kill virus-infected cells

  • D. Able to kill virus-infected cells w/o prior sensitization



Which one of the following substances is not released by an activated helper t cell l.jpg
Which one of the following substances is not released by an activated helper T cell?

  • A. IL-1

  • B. Interferon-gamma

  • C. IL-2

  • D. IL-4


A il 1519 l.jpg
A. IL-1 activated helper T cell?


Slide520 l.jpg
Which cytokine is released by LPS-activated macrophages and can stimulate hepatocytes to release acute-phase proteins?

  • A. IL-2

  • B. Tumor necrosis factor alpha

  • C. Interferon-gamma

  • D. B7-1


B tumor necrosis factor alpha521 l.jpg
B. Tumor necrosis factor alpha can stimulate hepatocytes to release acute-phase proteins?


An incorrect statement concerning macrophages is l.jpg
An incorrect statement concerning macrophages is: can stimulate hepatocytes to release acute-phase proteins?

  • A. Macrophages play a role in the specific immune response

  • B. Macrophages are microbicidal

  • C. Activated macrophages can kill facultative intracellular bacteria

  • D. Macrophages possess both 1o and 2o lysosomal granules


D macrophages possess both 1 o and 2 o lysosomal granules l.jpg
D. Macrophages possess both 1 can stimulate hepatocytes to release acute-phase proteins?o and 2o lysosomal granules


Concerning antibodies which statement is least accurate l.jpg
Concerning antibodies, which statement is least accurate? can stimulate hepatocytes to release acute-phase proteins?

  • A. The hypervariable regions are also know as complementarity determining regions

  • B. All antibodies have a long half-life

  • C. In the memory response, IgG is the antibody produced in the highest concentration

  • D. A plasma cell produces a single Ab class


B all antibodies have a long half life l.jpg
B. All antibodies have a long half-life can stimulate hepatocytes to release acute-phase proteins?


Which of the following statements does not apply to 1 o lymphoid organs l.jpg
Which of the following statements does not apply to 1 can stimulate hepatocytes to release acute-phase proteins?o lymphoid organs?

  • A. Transformation of stem cells into antigen-specific T and B cells requires antigenic stimulation

  • B. Most 1o lymphoid organs regress later in life

  • C. Majority of developing T cells are destroyed in the thymus

  • D. They are also known as central lymphoid organs


A transformation of stem cells into antigen specific t and b cells requires antigenic stimulation l.jpg
A. Transformation of stem cells into antigen-specific T and B cells requires antigenic stimulation


Which would you expect to activate cytotoxic cd8 t cells l.jpg
Which would you expect to activate cytotoxic CD8 B cells requires antigenic stimulation+ T cells?

  • A. A killed viral preparation that has retained its antigenic properties but cannot replicate

  • B. An attenuated viral preparation that can still replicate within the host’s cells

  • C. A small protein such as insulin

  • D. None of the above



Which of the following is not a chemotactic agent for neutrophils l.jpg
Which of the following is not a chemotactic agent for neutrophils?

  • A. C5a

  • B. Rantes

  • C. LTB4

  • Interferon-gamma


B rantes l.jpg
B. Rantes (?) neutrophils?