Romans #2 , The Need of Divine Righteousness. 1:18 - 3:20 The Condemnation of the Gentiles The Condemnation of the Jews The Summing Up of All Men in Sin. Romans #2 - The Need of Divine Righteousness. “What is Divine Righteousness?”
1:18 - 3:20
The Condemnation of the Gentiles
The Condemnation of the Jews
The Summing Up of All Men in Sin
>Man did not achieve it on his own, as we will see from -1:18ff with the Gentiles,
-and from 2:1ff for the Jews.
>Therefore if salvation is dependant upon Righteousness (it is, 3:21-26), then it must come from God to man.
>This is called Imputed Righteousness- but that’s a later lesson.
Tonight, we’re dealing with the need of righteousness, or rather the demonstration of that need.
Where there is no Law,
there cannot be Sin, 4:15b.
If there is no sin,
there can be no basis for condemnation.
And yet God says, “Man is guilty and in need of saving!”
So, what Law did the Gentile violate to become guilty if he was never under under Moses’ Law????
Notice the text of 1:18-23:
>the wrath of God is revealed against ungodliness and unrighteousness, v.18a, 2:8
>they “suppressed” the truth, v.18b > 2Thess.2:6
>they ignored internal evidence, v.19
>they ignored external evidence, v.20; cf. Acts 14:17 & Acts 17:24ff
To what did this lead?
-although they knew God, v.21a
-they did not honor Him as God, v.21b
-or give thanks, v.21c (cf. 1Tim.4:3)
-professions of wisdom despite being fools, v.22 > 1Cor.1:18ff
and, -idolatry, v.23.
So what did God do about all of this?
He “gave them over…”vv.24ff
-in lust to impurity, vv.24-25
-to degrading passions, vv.26-27
-depravity (corrupt, evil, perverted ) of mind, vv.28-31
v.32 Knowledge did not benefit conduct….
They did not achieve righteousness for salvation!
-He was more than willing to condemn the Gentile,v.1a
-But was unwilling to accept his own guilt for having committed the same sin with the Law that the Gentile had done without it,vv.2b-3.
-Heignored (“think lightly of”) God’s kindnesses, forbearance, and patience toward himself,v.4
-His stubbornness & unrepentance = wrath,v.5
God is impartial, v.6
-Those who do good > eternal life, v.7
-Those who do not obey > wrath & indignation, v.8
-It matters not whether one is Jewish or Gentile….
the one who does evil > tribulation & distress, v.9
-There is no partiality with God, vv.11-16
But if you are a Jew:
-relying on the Law & boast in God,v.17
-know His will, approve things essential from the Law, v.18
-confident in yourself as a guide to the blind,v.19
-corrector, teacher, the very embodiment of the Law,v.20
why aren’t you teaching yourself?v.21a!
But you aren’t- you are just as guilty!vv.21b-27
Inward circumcision of the heart is the only one which counts with God! vv.28-29 > Col.2:11
What then was the Jew’s advantage? Was there one?
He had the oracles of God,v.2
But, as already noted, he did not keep/obey them,v.3a
So, does this nullify the faithfulness of God to save those who did belief/obey? v.3b
Absolutely not, vv.4-8!
What’s the point then?
v.9 All have sinned & are therefore under its penalty!
1. The absolute condemnation of all men- regardless of Gentile or Jewish heritage, because of sin, vv.10-18.
2. The Gentile violated God’s natural revelation, chp.1.
3. The Jew violated God’s specific revelation, chp.2.
4. The Law therefore only produced knowledge of sin- not salvation, vv.19-20.
-your own sinfulness, and
-your own inability to extricate yourself from it….
-your dependence upon God’s help.
That help comes in the form of-
His Divine Righteousness.
The Manifestation of it is our next lesson.