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The Private Pilot. Class 10 . A few Items, not covered thus far More E6B Day! VOR/ADF Test. Objective: To finish the flight planning process, take a test to determine knowledge base. For the Private Pilot Written. Principles of Aerodynamics Stall and Spin Awareness Performance

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class 10
Class 10
  • A few Items, not covered thus far
  • More E6B Day!
  • Test
for the private pilot written
For the Private Pilot Written
  • Principles of Aerodynamics
    • Stall and Spin Awareness
  • Performance
    • Weight and Balance
  • Aeronautical Decision Making
    • Flight Safety
  • Weather
  • Charts
  • FAR’s
    • Preflight Actions
  • NTSB
  • AIM
    • Radio Procedures
far s
  • Part 61 - Certifications: Pilots, Flight Instructors, and Ground Instructors
  • Part 71 Airspace
  • Part 91 - General Operating and Flight Rules
  • (The Part is the Subject Code)
far 91 103
FAR 91.103

During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe for flight?

  • The pilot in command.
  • The certificated mechanic who performed the annual inspection.
  • The owner or operator.
Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
  • Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.
  • Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
  • Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.
In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to
  • review traffic control light signal procedures.
  • check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT).
  • determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.
far 91 107
FAR 91.107

Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during

  • takeoffs and landings.
  • all flight conditions.
  • flight in turbulent air.
far 91 1071
FAR 91.107

With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during

  • taxi, takeoffs, and landings.
  • all flight conditions.
  • flight in turbulent air.
far 91 3
FAR 91.3

The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the

  • Federal Aviation Administration.
  • pilot in command.
  • aircraft manufacturer.
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
  • A certificated aircraft mechanic.
  • The pilot in command.
  • The owner or operator.
far 91 123
FAR 91.123

What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?

  • Take no special action since you are pilot in command.
  • File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.
  • File a report to the FAA Administrator, as soon as possible.
far 91 111
FAR 91.111

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight

  • over a densely populated area.
  • in Class D airspace under special VFR.
  • except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.
far 91 303
FAR 91.303

No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when

  • flight visibility is less than 5 miles.
  • over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement.
  • less than 2,500 feet AGL.
What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight?
  • 1,000 feet AGL.
  • 1,500 feet AGL.
  • 2,000 feet AGL.
No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than
  • 3 miles.
  • 5 miles.
  • 7 miles.
far 91 313
FAR 91.313

Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?

  • Flight under instrument flight rules.
  • Flight over a densely populated area.
  • Flight within Class D airspace.
If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may
  • deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must submit a written report to the Administrator within 24 hours.
  • deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.
  • not deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 unless prior to the deviation approval is granted by the Administrator.
far s index
FAR’s Index
  • FAA e-cfr

Part 830- Notification and Reporting of Aircraft Accidents or Incidents and overdue aircraft, and preservation of aircraft wreckage, mail, cargo, and records.

ntsb accidents
  • Accident w/substantial damage - Immediately report.
  • Wreckage can be moved to protect from further damage
  • 10 days to file accident report for the OWNER.
ntsb incidents
NTSB Incidents:
  • Flight control system or in flight fire, incidents requiring immediate notification.
  • Overdue AC BELIEVED to be in an accident, Immediately!
  • Operator of aircraft involved in an incident, submit when requested by NTSB.
May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?
  • Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
  • Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.
  • No, it may not be moved under any circumstances.
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days?
  • 5.
  • 7.
  • 10.
If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified
  • immediately.
  • within 48 hours.
  • within 7 days.
Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
  • A forced landing due to engine failure.
  • Landing gear damage, due to a hard landing.
  • Flight control system malfunction or failure.

4-2-2. Radio Technique

(Refer to figure 26.) What is the estimated time en route for a flight from Denton Muni (area 1) to Addison (area 2)? The wind is from 200° at 20 knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7° east.
  • 13 minutes.
  • 16 minutes.
  • 19 minutes.
(Refer to figure 22.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1). The wind is from 330° at 25 knots, the true airspeed is 100 knots, and the magnetic variation is 10° east.
  • 002°.
  • 012°.
  • 352°.
(Refer to figure 25). Determine the magnetic course from Airpark East Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area 2). Magnetic variation is 6°30'E.
  • 075°.
  • 082°.
  • 091°.
(Refer to figure 21.) En route to First Flight Airport (area 5), your flight passes over Hampton Roads Airport (area 2) at 1456 and then over Chesapeake Municipal at 1501. At what time should your flight arrive at First Flight?
  • 1516.
  • 1521.
  • 1526.
(Refer to figure 23.) What is the magnetic heading for a flight from Priest River Airport (area 1) to Shoshone County Airport (area 3)? The wind is from 030° at 12 knots, and the true airspeed is 95 knots.
  • 118°.
  • 143°.
  • 136°.
radio navigation
Radio Navigation
  • 1. Communicate, AIM
  • 2. Navigational Aids

is navigation by reference to landmarks or checkpoints. It is a method of navigation that can be used on any course that has adequate checkpoints.

Dead reckoning

is navigation solely by means of computations based on time, airspeed, distance, and direction. The products derived from these variables, when adjusted by windspeed and velocity, are heading and groundspeed. The predicted heading will guide the airplane along the intended path and the groundspeed will establish the time to arrive at each checkpoint and the destination.

VERY HIGH FREQUENCY (VHF) OMNIDIRECTIONAL RANGE (VOR) The VOR system is present in three slightly different navigation aids (NAVAIDs): VOR, VOR/DME, and VORTAC. By itself it is known as a VOR, and it provides magnetic bearing information to and from the station. When DME is also installed with a VOR, the NAVAID is referred to as a VOR/DME.
The word “omni” means all, and an omnidirectional range is a VHF radio transmitting ground station that projects straight line courses (radials) from the station in all directions. From a top view, it can be visualized as being similar to the spokes from the hub of a wheel. The distance VOR radials are projected depends upon the power output of the transmitter.
The course or radials projected from the station are referenced to magnetic north. Therefore, a radial is defined as a line of magnetic bearing extending outward from the VOR station. Radials are identified by numbers beginning with 001, which is 1°east of magnetic north, and progress in sequence through all the degrees of a circle until reaching 360. To aid in orientation, a compass rose reference to magnetic north is superimposed on aeronautical charts at the station location.
(Refer to figure 29, illustration 3.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft's position relative to the station?
  • East.
  • Southeast.
  • West.
(Refer to figure 25.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set in order to navigate direct from Majors Airport (area 1) to Quitman VORTAC (area 2)?
  • 101°.
  • 108°.
  • 281°.
(Refer to figure 22.) What course should be selected on the omnibearing selector (OBS) to make a direct flight from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to the Minot VORTAC (area 1) with a TO indication?
  • 359°.
  • 179°.
  • 001°.

To navigate using the ADF, the pilot tunes the receiving equipment to a ground station known as a NONDIRECTIONALRADIOBEACON (NDB). The NDB stations normally operate in a low or medium frequency band of 200 to 415 kHz. (AM Radio Stations)

(Refer to figure 31, illustration 1.) The relative bearing TO the station is
  • 045°.
  • 180°.
  • 315°.
(Refer to figure 30, illustration 1.) Determine the magnetic bearing TO the station.
  • 030°.
  • 180°.
  • 210°.
GLOBAL POSITIONING SYSTEM - satellite based radio navigation system.

To solve for its location, the GPS receiver utilizes the signals of at least four of the best-positioned satellites to yield a three-dimensional fix (latitude, longitude, and altitude). A two-dimensional fix (latitude and longitude only) can be determined with as few as three satellites.

GPS receivers have extensive databases.
  • Databases are provided initially by the receiver manufacturer and updated by the manufacturer or a designated data agency.