Malpeli Revision

Malpeli Revision 300 - 400

300. Carbohydrate loading would most benefit the following athlete: A: 1500 m swimmer B: 3000m runner C: Triathlete D: Pole vaulter ANSWER: C: Triathlete

301. Reactivity is: A: Where physical activity is undertaken B: The level at which a measure influences physical activity behaviour C: Completingvigorous activity that makes you “huff & puff” D: None of the above ANSWER: B: The level at which a measure influences physical activity behaviour

302. Validity refers to: A: Tests/measures that aren’t affected by memory limitations B: How accurate a measure is C: The ability of a test/measure to be repeated under similar conditions D: The degree to which a test/measurement measures what it sets out to measure. ANSWER: D: The degree to which a test/measurement measures what it sets out to measure.

303. The following is an example of an subjective measure of physical activity: A: Heart rate monitoring B: Accelerometry C: Physical activity diary D: None of the above ANSWER: C: Physical activity diary

304. An advantage of using heart rate monitoring to assess physical activity is: A: Provides a strong link to energy expenditure B: Enables quick and easy data collection C: Provides a good description of several dimensions of physical activity D: All of the above ANSWER: D: All of the above

305. Stage 5 of the “Stages of Change” model is known as the Maintenance stage which: A: Allows participants to temporarily “drop out” of physical activity for a period of time B: Sees performers incorporating physical activity as part of their lifestyle and meeting the guidelines for at least six months C: Can only be experienced when Stage 4 has been met for at least 3 months D: None of the above ANSWER: B: Sees performers incorporating physical activity as part of their lifestyle and meeting the guidelines for at least six months

306. The following is not an example of a “constructed environment” A: A skate park next to a school B: A synthetic walking/running track placed around a shopping centre C: A shade sail placed above the sand pit in the primary school D: None of the above ANSWER: D: None of the above

307. When critiquing strategies used at the population level to promote physical activity, the following must be considered: A: Educational programs to support social and environmental changes B: Removal of impediments C: Tailoring of programs D: All of the above ANSWER: D: All of the above

308. The most effective school based setting physical activity promoting strategies: A: Have Department of Education printed material outlining physical activity benefits B: Ensure only P.E. teachers take sporting teams C: Make P.E. uniforms compulsory D: All of the above ANSWER: A: Have Department of Education printed material outlining physical activity benefits

309. A benefit associated with having a physically active group of office workers include: A: Reduced KPI’s (Key Performance Indicators) B: Increased absenteeism C: Reduced staff turnover D: Increased amount of overtime completed ANSWER: C: Reduced staff turnover

310. During sub-maximal activity lasting 20 minutes, most of our energy comes from: A: Fats B: Carbohydrates C: Proteins D: A combination of all of the above ANSWER: B: Carbohydrates

311. The ATP-PC system has: A: High yield B: High rate C: Low yield D: Infinite PC sources ANSWER: B : High rate

312. The energy system interplay is best described when: A: ATP is released from the ATP-PC system, then the LA system and lastly the aerobic system B: The three energy systems collectively supply ATP to working muscles in a sequential pattern C: The three energy systems are used during play rather than rest D: ATP is supplied by all 3 energy systems, but one produces more ATP than the others ANSWER: D: ATP is supplied by all 3 energy systems, but one produces more ATP than the others

313. Once the lactate threshold is exceeded, the following occurs : A: The LA system becomes the major energy supplier B: The PC system is able to replenish energy stores now that it is not being used and “rested” C: Most ATP resynthesis occurs as a result of aerobic glycolysis D: Hydrogen ions rapidly accumulate ANSWER: D: Hydrogen ions rapidly accumulate

314. Steady state occurs when: A: Oxygen consumption reaches a sub-maximum level B: The Cori cycle starts to break down built up lactic acid and convert it to glycogen to be reused C: The cardiovascular and respiratory systems are in equilibrium D: Oxygen supply is equal to oxygen demand ANSWER: D: Oxygen supply is equal to oxygen demand

315. The most likely cause of fatigue for a 400m sprinter (athletics) is: A: PC depletion B: Lowered muscle Ph C: Accumulation of muscle lactate D: Lactic Acid accumulation ANSWER: C: Accumulation of muscle lactate

316. Following a 30 second interval sprint (max intensity) how long would it take to replenish fuel stores used in the work period? A: 10 seconds (1: 1 work : rest ratio) B: 100 seconds C: 200 seconds D: 300 seconds ANSWER: C: 200 seconds

317. Males exhibit greater aerobic capacity than females due to: A: Greater participation in physical activity B: Having larger lung capacities C: Having a higher percentage of slow-twitch fibres D: Increased alveolar cross sectional area ANSWER: B: Having larger lung capacities

318. Anaerobic power is a measure of: A: The PC system’s ability to produce energy B: The LA system’s ability to produce power C: The alactacid system’s ability to produce power D: The anaerobic energy systems ability to provide energy via their pathways ANSWER: D: The anaerobic energy systems ability to provide energy via their pathways

319. The most important fitness component for a diver performing a double somersault with half twist is: A: Reaction Time B: Agility C: Speed D: Aerobic Power ANSWER: B: Agility

320. The purpose of conducting a games analysis is to: A: Determine the different playing zones B: Allocate votes for elite performers C: Decide on how to best prepare / train for the actual game D: All of the above ANSWER: C: Decide on how to best prepare / train for the actual game

321. The most appropriate fitness tests on offer are: A: Reliable B: Valid C: Specific D: None of the above ANSWER: D: Specific

322. The most specific test to assess the agility of a football player would be the: A: Illinois Agility Run B: Semo Agility Test C: Harvard Twist Touch Test D: Margarita Agility Run ANSWER: A: Illinois Agility Run

323. Males would be expected to score better on the vertical jump test than females because they: A: Train more than females B: Possess greater ankle flexibility and can generate greater push off as a result of this C: Play more football than girls and this is an action specific to the game D: Have greater cross sectional area in the quadriceps/hamstring region ANSWER: D: Have greater cross sectional area in the quadriceps/hamstring region

324. Plyometric training best develops: A: Power B: Strength C: Speed D: Type IIIB Fibres ANSWER: A: Power

325. The recommended frequency for athletes seeking to maintain aerobic capacity is: A: 2 times / week B: 3 times / week C: 4-5 times / week D: 7 times / week ANSWER: A: 2 times / week

326. Any “plateau” during a training program indicates: A: The athlete needs to be thinking about “tapering” B: Overtraining is occurring C: A “steady State” has been achieved D: A period of adaptation ANSWER: D: A period of adaptation

327. The best example of short interval training listed below is: A: 10 x 10 x 10 m runs with a w:r ratio of 1:6 B: 2 x 20 x 100 m runs with a w:r ratio of 1:2 C: 2 x 2 x 1,000 m runs with a w:r ratio of 1:1 D: 2 x 20 x 10,000m runs with a w:r ratio of 1:10 ANSWER: A: 10 x 10 x 10 m runs with a w:r ratio of 1:6

328. “Fartlek” training : A: Can be overloaded by reducing the work : rest ratio B: Is also knows as “playing with speed” C: Requires rest periods to restore PC and remove H+ ions D: Combines continuous activity with short bursts of intense work at regular intervals ANSWER: D: Combines continuous activity with short bursts of intense work at regular intervals

329. Plyometrics are exemplified by the following group of activities: A: Skipping, max push ups in 60 seconds, running on the spot for 30 seconds (max intensity) B: Alternating upper body with lower body parts for consecutive activities C: 10 x 20 m sprints every 45 seconds followed by 15 x 15m sprints every 30 seconds D: None of the above ANSWER: D: None of the above

330. Plyometrics can be overloaded by: A: Increasing the weight and decreasing the repetitions B: Decreasing the weight and increasing the repetitions C: Increasing the rest and decreasing the intensity D: Making the muscles to contract more forcefully by jumping higher or performing at a higher intensity ANSWER: D: Making the muscles to contract more forcefully by jumping higher or performing at a higher intensity

331. In the following exercise prescription for resistance training ~ 4 x 8 x 80kg, the 8 represents: A: Repetitions B: Sets C: Resistance D: The day of the week training is undertaken ANSWER: A: Repetitions

332. The following is most likely to result from participation in an aerobic training program lasting 18+ mths: A: Increased capillarisation B: Decreased diastolic blood pressure C: Decreased cardiac output D: All of the above ANSWER: A: Increased capillarisation

333. Increased myoglobin levels resulting from aerobic conditioning / training assists in: A: Transporting more oxygen around the vascular system B: Preventing the myoglotic stretch reflex (less slow twitch muscle trains) C: Moving more oxygen from cell membranes to the mitochondria D: None of the above ANSWER: C: Moving more oxygen from cell membranes to the mitochondria

334. Aerobic training results in decreases to the systolic blood pressure at sub-maximal intensities due to: A: Improved elasticity of blood vessels B: Increasing LDL’s and reducing plaque build up on the inside of blood vessels C: Reciprocal increases in diastolic blood pressure D: All of the above ANSWER: A: Improved elasticity of blood vessels

335. Aerobic training has the following effect on diaphragm oxygen consumption during sub-maximal intensities: A: Decreases B: Increases C: Remains relatively unchanged D: None of the above ANSWER: A: Decreases

336. Short interval training will result in the following chronic changes to fast twitch muscle fibres: A: Increased “whiteness” B: Increased antioxidative enzyme stores C: Increased triglyceride stores D: None of the above ANSWER: D: None of the above

337. Continuous training will result in the following chronic changes to slow twitch muscle fibres: A: Increased aerobic force capacity B: Increased antioxidative enzyme stores C: Increased contraction speed D: Increased use of FFA’s ANSWER: D: Increased use of FFA’s

338. Short interval training will result in the following adaptations to lactic acid tolerance: A: Decreased reliance of glucose as a fuel B: Increased oxidative enzyme stores C: Increased buffering ability D: Decreased acid-base regulation ANSWER: C: Increased buffering ability

339. Training with moderate intensity/loads and high repetitions will generally result in greater changes to: A: Type IIB fibres B: Type IIA fibres C: Type I Fibres D: Type IA Fibres ANSWER: C: Type I Fibres

340. Massage assists recovery by: A: Decreasing blood flow to the massaged area(s) B: Increasing the amount of oxygen transported to vital organs C: Increasing the rate of waste removal fromthe massaged area(s) D: All of the above ANSWER: C: Increasing the rate of waste removal fromthe massaged area(s)

341. The most effective way of preventing overtraining is to: A: Keep a training diary B: Try to remember everything undertaken during a week of training C: “Listen” to what your body is saying to you by the way it feels D: Employ a personal trainer ANSWER: A: Keep a training diary

342. Injury risk management systems include: A: Regular playing equipment checks B: Pre-game examination of playing fields C: Keeping a safe distance between players and spectators D: All of the above ANSWER: D: All of the above

343. Coaches might contribute to risks associated with the team they are training by: A: Encouraging players to play with “niggling injuries” for the benefit of the team B: Ensuring first aid kits are available at every training session C: Enlisting the support of non paid qualified staff D: All of the above ANSWER: A: A Encouraging players to play with “niggling injuries” for the benefit of the team

344. Risk management procedures extend beyond team management to facilities and equipment. The following must be taken into consideration in this area: A: The correct ratio of medical staff to players in the team B: Players are kept up to date with latest injury prevention trends C: Ensuring coaches regularly “upskill” D: None of the above ANSWER: D: None of the above

345. The following is a practical example of how AFL football teams try to prevent injuries A: Ensuring players participate in accredited courses so they’ll have a job when they finish playing B: Players wearing helmets to avoid serious head injuries (similar to NFL footballers) C: Using new pre-season training methods that have worked with in the USA for NFL footballers but haven’t been trialled here D: Greater emphasis on strengthening hamstring muscles during training to avoid knee injuries ANSWER: D: Greater emphasis on strengthening hamstring muscles during training to avoid knee injuries

346. The following strategy can assist enhancing performance by building or maintaining confidence: A: Using cue words regularly that are spoken to self or called out B: “Walking the talk” C: Faking an injury to upset an opponent’s concentration D: All of the above ANSWER: A: Using cue words regularly that are spoken to self or called out

347. The following drink is associated with the slowest rates of absorption and hydration: A: Hypotonic B: Hypertonic C: Hypatonic D: Hyputonic ANSWER: A: Hypertonic

348. Minerals are important in assisting performance PB’s by: A: Assisting in water loss to help with thermoregulation B: Maintaining an acid-base balance to ensure normal cellular function C: Adding to the amount of ATP that can be produced D: Ensuring the Essential Electrolytic Balance (EEB) is maintained ANSWER: B: Maintaining an acid-base balance to ensure normal cellular function

Malpeli Revision