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MCQs

MCQs. 2014 Summer exams. If you notice any errors in these questions please let us know and let those using these questions know. Every effort has gone into making sure there are no errors however they may still occur. Good luck with your exams!.

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MCQs

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  1. MCQs 2014 Summer exams

  2. If you notice any errors in these questions please let us know and let those using these questions know. Every effort has gone into making sure there are no errors however they may still occur. Good luck with your exams!

  3. Which type of spina bifida has the worst outcome? • Spina Bifida Occulta • Myeloschisis • Meningocele • Myelomeningocele • Meningeal Cyst

  4. (ANSWER: b (myeloschisis is a TYPE of myelomingocele, but myelomeningocele can often be repaired whereas myeloschisis results in some form of disability + meningitis- Anatomy, Block 2 and 5)

  5. Which one of these is not found in the tarsal tunnel? • Tendon of Tibialis Posterior • Tendon of Flexor Digitorum • Anterior Tibial Artery • Tendon of Flexor HallucisLongus • Tibial Nerve

  6. ANSWER: c – the posterior tibial artery passes through the tarsal tunnel; the anterior tibial artery passes lateral to the extensor hallucislongus tendon on the dorsal part of the foot (and medial to extensor digitorum tendon)

  7. Which of these does not describe the attitude of a child who has secure attachment with their parent? • Can separate from parent • Becomes very distressed when parent leaves • Prefers the parent versus a stranger • When parents enter a room child reacts with positive emotions • Seek comfort from the parent when

  8. Answer: b- in secure attachment, there is some distress when parents leave, but very distressed children are usually those who have ambivalent attachment (unavailable mother)

  9. Why of the following is a not a sign of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome? • Wasting of thenal eminence muscles • Positive Tinel’s test • Reduced grip strength • Numbness over thenar eminence • Paraesthesia in median nerve distribution

  10. Correct Answer: D. • Explanation: Sensation to the skin over the thenar eminence is provided by palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve which does not travel through the carpal tunnel. It comes off the median nerve proximal to the flexor retinaculum and travels superficially to the flexor retinaculum and is therefore not compressed.

  11. The tendons of which muscles does De Quervain's syndrome classically affect? • Flexor pollicislongus and flexor pollicisbrevis • Abductor pollicislongus and abductor pollicisbrevis • Extensor pollicisbrevis and abductor pollicislongus • Extensor carpi radialis and extensor pollicislongus

  12. Correct Answer: C. • Explanation: De Quervain syndrome is a tenosynovitis of the sheath or tunnel that surrounds two tendons that control movement of the thumb. Symptoms are pain, tenderness, and swelling over the thumb side of the wrist, and difficulty gripping. The two tendons concerned are the tendons of the extensor pollicisbrevis and abductor pollicislongus muscles. These two muscles, which run side by side, have almost the same function: the movement of the thumb away from the hand in the plane of the hand (radial abduction).

  13. Warfarin works by inhibiting an enzyme that is required for the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. What are these factors? • III, VII, IX and X • III, V, VII and X • II, VII, IX and X • II, V, VII and X • II, V, IX and X

  14. Answer: C

  15. What does the biceps reflex test? • C7, C8 • C8, T1 • C6, C7 • C5, C6

  16. Answer D

  17. A patient presents with diplopia due to a lesion of a single cranial nerve. On examination he is found to have a left sided ptosis, left mydriasis and a divergent strabismus. • Which cranial nerve is affected? • CN II • CN III • CN IV • CN VI • All of above

  18. Answer: B

  19. What respiratory drug class causes bronchodilation through blocking the action of phospholipase C? • Beta agonists • Anti-cholinergics • Beta blockers • Methylxanthines • Monoclonal antibody

  20. Mrs Jones is a 66 year old woman who presents to A&E with a pleuritic left sided chest pain and SOB. She has recently had a hip replacement and is currently receiving treatment for breast cancer.

  21. What scoring system/criteria are used to determine the risk of DVT/PE? • Light’s criteria • Wells score • Gleason score • Vichow’s criteria • CHADS2 score

  22. Answer: B

  23. What would be the most appropriate first investigation if the scoring system determined Mrs Jones to have a high pre-test probability of PE? • D-dimer • CXR • Doppler Ultrasound scan • CT Pulmonary Angiography • ABG

  24. Answer: D

  25. You confirm Mrs Jones has a PE, what is the most appropriate drug/drug combination to start treatment with? • Streptokinase alone • Low molecular weight heparin alone • Warfarin alone • Streptokinase + Warfarin • Low molecular weight heparin + Warfarin

  26. Answer: E

  27. Streptokinase… • Inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase • Activates antithrombin III • Is a direct thrombin inhibitor • Activates plasminogen  plasmin • Inhibits the activation of fibrinogen  fibrin

  28. Answer: D

  29. Should you need to reverse the effects of heparin in a patient, for example in cases of overdose, what would be the most appropriate treatment to give them? • Protamine sulphate • Vitamin K • Fresh frozen plasma • Blood transfusion • Prothrombin complex concentrate

  30. Answer A

  31. What are the 5 things needed for erythropoiesis to occur? • Copper, Vitamin B1, Folate, Erythropoietin and bone marrow • Oxidised Iron, Vitamin B12, folate, erythropoietin and bone marrow • Iron, Vitamin B12, folate, growth factor and bone marrow • Iron, Vitamin B12, Folate, Erythropoietin and bone marrow. • Iron, Vitamin B1, folate, erythropoietin and bone marrow

  32. Answer: D

  33. Erythrocytes stay in circulation for ---- days? • 120 • 180 • 60 • 220 • 30

  34. Answer A

  35. The toxic dose of paracetamol is --- • 10 milligrams • 1000 milligrams • 5 grams • 500 milligrams • 10 grams

  36. Answer: E

  37. What inactivates the toxic metabolite of paracetomol? • Glutathione • Tyramine • Nitric oxide • Glucaronic acid • Salicylic acid

  38. Answer A

  39. What is a polymorphic distribution? • A differential trait that is expressed by more than 5% of the population. • A differential trait that is expressed by more than 0.1% of the population. • A differential trait that is expressed by more than 1% of the population. • A differential trait that is expressed by more than 10 % of the population. • A differential trait that is expressed by more than 0.5 % of the population.

  40. Answer: C

  41. Stomach emptying is decreased by • Hypertonicicity, high fat and high acidic chyme in the duodenum • Hypertonicicity, high fat and high acidic chyme in the stomach • Hypotonicicity, low fat and high alkaline chyme in the stomach • Hypotonicicity, low fat and high alkaline chyme in the duodenum • Hypertonicicity, low fat and high alkaline chyme in the duodenum

  42. Answer: A

  43. T cells are called T cells because • They mature in the thymus • They are T shaped • They have 3 nuclei which form a T shape • They have a cyto-toxic function • They are activated by thyroid hormones

  44. Answer: A

  45. How many erythrocytes can be made from 1 committed stem cell? • 12 • 16 • 8 • 18 • 20

  46. Answer: B

  47. Iron stored in macrophages is known as ---? • Ferritin • Macroferritin • Macrosidderin • Hemosiderin • Haemoferritin

  48. Answer: D

  49. The secretory phase of the menstrual cycle refers to --- • Uterus changes only • Changes to the cervix only • Changes to both the uterus and cervix • The menses only • Days 14-28 of a regular cycle

  50. Answer: A

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