Gen Med Board Review – Part I Screening/Vaccines, Common Symptoms, Musculoskeletal complaints, Red Eye, Perioperative Medicine. April 18, 2013.
April 18, 2013
A 62-year-old woman is evaluated during a follow-up visit for hypertension. She has no complaints and is monogamous with her husband of 35 years. Her only current medication is hydrochlorothiazide. On physical examination, blood pressure is 136/72 mm Hg and weight is 62 kg (136 lb). Physical examination is normal. Total cholesterol is 188 mg/dLand HDL cholesterol is 54 mg/dL.. She received an influenza vaccination 3 months ago and a herpes zoster vaccination 1 year ago. Her last Pap smear was 14 months ago and it was normal, as were the previous three annual Pap smears. Which of the following is the most appropriate health maintenance option for this patient?
Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
A 57-year-old man is evaluated during a routine examination. He has hypertension, which is well controlled on hydrochlorothiazide. He asks if he should get a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test. Medical history is otherwise unremarkable. There is no family history of cancer. Blood pressure is 132/86 mm Hg, and results of the physical examination are unremarkable. Which of the following is the best prostate cancer screening option for this patient?
A 68-year-old woman is evaluated during a routine examination. She states that last year she had a painful rash on the right side of her back that was self-limited. She does not recall a history of childhood chickenpox. She takes no medications and has no allergies. Vital signs are normal and the physical examination is unremarkable. Complete blood count, liver enzymes, and serum chemistry studies are all normal. She is scheduled to receive her annual influenza vaccination today. Which of the following is the most appropriate vaccine administration strategy to prevent herpes zoster in this patient?
Influenza - IM
A 52-year-old woman is evaluated at a routine appointment and seeks advice on smoking cessation. She smokes one and one half packs of cigarettes daily and wants help to stop. She has tried to stop smoking on three previous occasions, each time using nicotine replacement therapy, and she would like to try something different. She has a seizure disorder that is well controlled on valproate. In addition to brief smoking cessation counseling, which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic therapy to offer?
A 52-year-old man is evaluated for a daily cough for the past 6 months. It occurs throughout the day and occasionally at night, but he does not notice any specific triggers. There is occasional production of small amounts of white sputum but no hemoptysis. He does not have any known allergies, has no new pets or exposures, and does not smoke. He does have nasal discharge. He has not noticed any wheezing and has no history of asthma. He has no symptoms of heartburn. He has had no fever, weight loss, or foreign travel, and takes no medications. Vital signs are normal. There is no cobblestone appearance of the oropharyngealmucosa. Lungs are clear to auscultation. A chest radiograph is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
(99% due to UACS, Asthma, or GERD in nonsmokers with normal CXR and not on ACEI)
An 89-year-old woman is evaluated for dizziness that she has had for the past year, mainly while standing and ambulating. The dizziness is described as a sense of unsteadiness. The symptoms can last for minutes to hours, and she has at least 4 to 5 episodes per day. There are no reproducible activities that cause the dizziness. She does not describe hearing loss, headache, diplopia, or other motor or sensory symptoms. Medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, osteoporosis, and mild dementia. Current medications are hydrochlorothiazide, ramipril, simvastatin, metformin, insulin glargine, low-dose aspirin, and donepezil. Exam reveals no orthostasis. Cardiopulmonary exam is normal. The patient has a positive Romberg sign and is unsteady on tandem gait. Rapid alternating movements are slowed. The patient has a corrected visual acuity of 20/50 in the right eye and 20/70 in the left eye. Vibratory sense and light touch are diminished in a stocking pattern in the lower extremities, and ankle jerk reflexes are 1+. She has no motor abnormalities and no cranial nerve abnormalities. A Dix-Hallpike maneuver does not elicit vertigo or nystagmus. Labs are wnl.Which of the following management options is the best choice for this patient?
A 79-year-old man is evaluated in the emergency department for vertigo that began suddenly about 1 hour ago, associated with severe nausea and vomiting. He noticed that he could not seem to sit up straight and could not walk without assistance. The patient denies confusion, motor weakness, hearing loss, dysarthria, diplopia, fever, or paresthesias. Medical history is remarkable for hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Current medications are lisinopril, atorvastatin, low-dose aspirin, insulin glargine, metformin, and atenolol. There are no allergies. The patient demonstrates unsteadiness on finger-to-nose testing in the right upper extremity and is unable to walk more than a few steps or stand without assistance. Motor strength and reflexes are normal. Visual acuity and visual fields are normal. Otoscopic and hearing exams normal. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. Which of the following in the most appropriate management option for this patient?
A 61-year-old man is evaluated for dizziness that started about 2 days ago while he was looking over his shoulder. He describes the symptoms as “room spinning” dizziness and mild nausea. The symptoms resolved within several minutes when he lay back on the couch and was perfectly still. They recurred several hours later while turning in bed and the next day while backing out of his driveway. He denies diplopia, slurred speech, confusion, motor weakness, paresthesias, tinnitus, antecedent infection, or hearing loss. He has no other medical problems and takes no medications. Vital signs are normal. The cardiopulmonary examination is normal. Peripheral nystagmus and reproduction of symptoms on the Dix-Hallpike maneuver when the head is turned right are demonstrated. There are no focal neurologic defects. Visual acuity and hearing are normal.Which of the following management options is the beset choice for this patient?
Vertigo – “room is spinning”1. Nystagmus – vertical vs horizontal2. Episodic or Persistent3. How long does it last?4. Associated with hearing loss? Tinnitus? Nausea?
Vestibular suppressants: anticholinergics, antihistamines, benzos
A 36-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department after collapsing suddenly while waiting in line at a county fair on a hot summer day. The patient states she felt nauseated and became diaphoretic and lightheaded. She sat on the ground and then lost consciousness. According to her son, she was unconscious for less than a minute, exhibited some twitching movements when she first lost consciousness, but had no incontinence or symptoms of confusion upon awakening. She had no further symptoms upon regaining consciousness. She has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia. On exam, temperature is normal, blood pressure is 142/80 mm Hg (supine) and 138/78 mm Hg (standing), pulse rate is 84/min (supine) and 92/min (standing). Cardiac and neurologic examinations are normal. An ECG is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management option for this patient?
Vasovagal: Specific trigger leads to increased parasympathetic (vagal) tone (decreased HR and increased BP)
A 42-year-old man is seen in the office for low back pain that began after lifting a box 5 days ago. The pain is moderately severe, and almost any movement makes it worse. He tried lying down and experienced some, but not complete, relief. He reports that he has had no trouble urinating. He has no other symptoms and is otherwise healthy. Physical examination reveals tenderness over the L4 paravertebral musculature bilaterally. His gait is slow owing to the pain. Results of a straight-leg-raising test are normal. There are no signs of motor weakness or sensory loss, including perineal sensation. Deep tendon reflexes are normal bilaterally.Which of the following is the best initial management option?
A 47-year-old man is evaluated in the office for right lateral shoulder pain. He has been pitching during batting practice for his son’s baseball team for the past 2 months. He has shoulder pain when lifting his right arm overhead and also when lying on the shoulder while sleeping. Acetaminophen does not relieve the pain.On physical examination, he has no shoulder deformities or swelling. Range of motion is normal. He has subacromial tenderness to palpation, with shoulder pain elicited at 60 degrees of passive abduction. He also has pain with resisted mid-arc abduction but no pain with resisted elbow flexion or forearm supination. He is able to lower his right arm smoothly from a fully abducted position, and his arm strength for abduction and external rotation against resistance is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis
A 72-year-old woman is evaluated for a 8-month history of aching in her left wrist that keeps her awake at night. She is in a knitting group and has found it increasingly difficult to perform fine hand movements. Using the Katz hand diagram, the patient indicates the presence of sensory changes in the first through third digits. She also reports wrist pain with sparing of the palm and some pain into the forearm. Her only medication is acetaminophen. On physical examination, there is weakness of thumb abduction, hypalgesia in a median nerve distribution, and thenaratrophy. Vascular assessment in the hand is normal. A nerve conduction study and electromyogram demonstrate medial neuropathy. Which of the following is the most appropriate management option for this patient?
A 48-year-old overweight woman is evaluated for buttock pain. She began jogging 1 week ago to lose weight. Over the last 2 days, pain has developed deep in the left gluteal area. The pain is an ache that she first noticed while lying in bed on her left side. It was somewhat relieved by lying on her right side. The pain has become severe enough that she avoids putting weight her left leg while climbing stairs. The pain does not radiate. Ibuprofen has helped the pain somewhat. She is on no other medications. On physical examination, there is tenderness elicited over the left sciatic notch when pressure is applied with the thumb. When lying on the right side, abduction of the leg is painful. The hip joint has no pain with full range of motion. There is no tenderness in the groin or over the lateral thigh, and FABER (Flexion, ABduction, and External Rotation of the hip) test results are normal. Reflexes and the straight-leg-raising test are normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A 35-year-old woman is evaluated in the office for a 5-day history of acute right knee pain that began when she hopped down from the bed of a truck, twisting her knee. She experienced a popping sensation and a gradual onset of knee joint swelling over the next several hours. Since then, she has continued to have moderate pain, particularly when walking up or down stairs. She reports no locking or giving way of the knee or any previous knee injury. On physical examination, the right knee has a minimal effusion with full range of motion. The medial aspect of the joint line is tender to palpation. Maximally flexing the hip and knee and applying abduction (valgus) force to the knee while externally rotating the foot and passively extending the knee (McMurray test) result in a palpable snap but no crepitus. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
part of iliotibial ligament
A 25-year-old woman presents for evaluation of recurrent, bilateral eye pain and redness. Symptoms began several months ago without a specific inciting event. With each episode, she has deep or boring pain that is constant and has awakened her from sleep. She has had photophobia, tearing, and decreased vision during the episodes. Vital signs are normal. Visual acuity is 20/40 bilaterally. There is photophobia. The pupils are equal, round, and reactive to light. Extraocular movements are intact but painful. The corneas appear clear. On the lateral aspect of both eyes, there is a localized area of raised erythema, with superficial blood vessels coursing over top of erythema but no white sclera visible between the blood vessels. There is no discharge or crusting of the lids. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis regarding her eyes?
68-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department for difficulty seeing out of her left eye. The symptoms were first present upon awakening 45 minutes earlier. She describes her vision as “looking through a dark veil.” Her right eye is unaffected. There is no associated pain, head-ache, muscle aching, or difficulty chewing, and no trauma or history of a similar episode. She has hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and chronic open-angle glaucoma. Current medications are ramipril, hydrochlorothiazide, atorvastatin, aspirin, and timolol ophthalmic solution. Vital signs are normal. Visual acuity in the right eye is 20/30, corrected for glasses; in the left eye, visual acuity is restricted to finger counting. Both globes are nontender to palpation. There is no conjunctival injection. Ophthalmoscopic examination of the right eye is normal. Findings in the left eye areshown. Venous pulsations are noted. Pupils are equal. The right pupil reacts to direct and consensual light stimulus. The left pupil has sluggish response to direct light, but normal consensual response. Cardiac and neurologic examinations and electrocardiogram are normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A 64-year-old woman is evaluated during a health maintenance examination. She has hypertension and hypercholesterolemia. She has no symptoms to report. She is a current smoker, with a 20 pack-year history. Current medications are atenolol and hydrochlorothiazide. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 28. Funduscopic examination reveals bright, yellow, refractile deposits scattered in the retina of the right eye, with approximately five deposits seen on direct ophthalmoscopy. The left fundus appears normal. On visual acuity testing, near vision is 20/20 with reading glasses, and distance vision is 20/25 for both eyes. The remainder of the physical examination is normal. A lipid panel obtained prior to today’s visit reveals a total cholesterol of 190 mg/dL; LDL cholesterol of 120 mg/dL; HDL cholesterol of 40 mg/dL; and triglycerides of 150 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most effective management option for this patient’s ocular findings?
A 78-year-old woman is evaluated because of concerns about her ability to drive. She has trouble seeing on bright, sunny days and also at night because of the glare from headlights of oncoming cars. The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus and a 55-pack-year smoking history. Her current medications include metformin and glipizide. This patient’s history is most suggestive of which of the following ophthalmologic disorders?
A 60-year-old woman is evaluated before undergoing a lumpectomy for breast cancer tomorrow. Medical history is significant for hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, a myocardial infarction 2 years ago, and a stroke 1 year ago with residual right-sided hemiparesis. The patient does not have chest pain or shortness of breath and is otherwise asymptomatic. She uses a walker to ambulate. Current medications are metoprolol, simvastatin, furosemide, losartan, nifedipine, insulin glargine, insulin aspart, and aspirin. On physical examination, temperature is 36.8 °C, BP 160/90 mm Hg, HR 66/min, and RR is 14/min. Examination is normal except for right-sided hemiparesis and mild bilateral pedal edema. Pertinent laboratory results: blood urea nitrogen, 35 mg/dL; creatinine, 2.2 mg/dL; random glucose, 180 mg/dL; hemoglobin A1c, 8.1%. An ECG shows normal sinus rhythm, left ventricular hypertrophy, first-degree atrioventricular block, and nonspecific ST-T wave changes. Which of the following is the most appropriate preoperative management?
A 65-year-old man with a 2-year history of severe osteoarthritis of the right knee is evaluated before undergoing total knee replacement surgery. Until 1 month ago, the patient was able to walk four or more blocks and four flights of stairs but now can only walk one block because of severe knee pain. He has a 3-year history of occasional chest pain that occurs less than once each month and develops only after walking too quickly. There has been no change in the severity or frequency of the chest pain and no dyspnea. Medical history is significant for a myocardial infarction 4 years ago, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypertension. Current medications are metoprolol, fosinopril, atorvastatin, insulin glargine, metformin, and aspirin. Blood pressure is 140/80 mm Hg, pulse rate is 60/min. BMI is 30. There is no jugular venous distention. The lungs are clear. There are no murmurs or gallops. Serum creatinine is 1.5 mg/dL (132.6 µmol/L). An electrocardiogram shows normal sinus rhythm with Q waves in leads II, III, and aVF; nonspecific ST-T wave changes; and left ventricular hypertrophy. A chest radiograph is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate preoperative cardiac testing?
A 70-year-old man with severe disability due to claudication in his right leg and a 2-month history of increasingly frequent chest pain undergoes preoperative cardiovascular evaluation prior to elective right femoropopliteal bypass graft surgery. The patient can only walk one block because of claudication and chest pain despite adequate medical treatment. Medical history is significant for coronary artery disease, a myocardial infarction 4 years ago, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. The patient underwent left femoropopliteal bypass graft surgery 2 years ago under general anesthesia without complications. He has a 55 pack-year smoking history but stopped smoking 2 years ago. Current medications are metoprolol, atorvastatin, amlodipine, fosinopril, isosorbidemononitrate, insulin glargine, insulin aspart, and aspirin. Vital signs are normal. There is no jugular venous distention. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. Pulses in the right calf are decreased. There is no calf tenderness and no peripheral edema. An electrocardiogram shows Q waves in the inferior leads. Which of the following is the best preoperative management?