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This comprehensive guide reviews essential ideas in valuation, covering topics like inflation, discounted cash flow, CAPM inputs, project-specific risks, and terminal value calculations. Understand the nuances of WACC, hurdle rates, NPV, and more to enhance your valuation skills.
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Overview 1. Review of key ideas 2. Inflation 3. Valuation and Forecast Horizon 4. CAPM inputs (weights, cost of debt, cost of equity)
1. Discounted Cash Flow: Key ideas • Present Value of project’s relevant cash flows • Relevant= incremental (no sunk costs), after tax • Popular tool: FCF discounted at WACCAT • Free Cash Flows (FCF) = Operating Income after-tax (EBIAT) + Depreciation – Capital Expenditures – Increase in Working Capital
Key Ideas(cont’d) • Theory says: Cost of Equity = Risk-free Rate plus Premium for Risk (market or beta risk, not total risk which is diversifiable – see CAPM) • WACC: blends cost of equity, cost of debt, and market value (not book value) proportions of debt and equity; these proportions are assumed to be constant, and imply that the firm will lever up (down) if cash flows later turn out to be better (worse) than expected • Company WACC reflects the average firm risk and financing choice; non-typical projects require their own WACC • Unique risks (expropriation etc): put in the cash flows, not in the hurdle rate
Key Ideas (cont’d):Potential stumbling blocks 1. Avoid fudge factors: do not increase hurdle rate to reflect every instance of high perceived risk Project-specific risk: reflect them in the cash flow estimates Economy-wide market risk: put in the beta, and thus in the discount rate • Positive NPV=‘$$ left on the table’ (economic rents); what is it about your company that allows you to obtain a competitive advantage? 3. NPV ignores value of follow-on options. Such options are hard to value, but may be worth significantly more than the project itself (cutting-edge: field of Real Options)
2. Inflation: Make sure the cash flows match the discount rate. • How to handle inflation? Consistently! • Real/real or Nominal/nominal • Nominal/nominal leads to fewer mistakes • Almost everyone uses nominal discount rates and capital costs (unless otherwise specified), so you might as well stick to nominal cash flows
3. Valuation and Forecast Horizon • NewAmerica Drill, Boeing 7E7: All the cash flows were explicitly forecasted until the end of the project • But Firms have unlimited lives, so no ‘project end’ • Typical: Forecast firm’s free cash flows explicitly for 5 or 10 years • Need a Terminal Value for value beyond explicit forecast horizon
How to calculate Terminal Value 3.0. Ignore it (conservative, may be small anyway) 3.1. TV = Book Value? No, BV is rarely same as MV 3.2. TV = Liquidation Value? No, unless co. is “terminally” ill 3.3.TV= Going Concern Value 3.3.1 DCF: Perpetuity of last forecasted cash flow 3.3.2 Multiple of something
3.3.1 Using DCF to estimate terminal value • Growing perpetuity of last FCF • E.g.: forecast FCF for 2007, 2008, 2009, 2010, 2011 • TV in 2011=(2011 FCF)*(1+g)/(r-g) • g=0 represents level perpetuity • Nominal growth= real growth + inflation • if g>3% (average US inflation): implies some real growth FOREVER! • If g=7%: implies same real growth as US GNP (4% average) FOREVER • Careful: high g requires more CapEx, WC; do your Cash Flows reflect that?
3.3.2 Using multiples to estimate TV + Private, Inc. EPS=$2.50, but no stock price; a similar Public Co. has EPS=$0.55, and stock price=$11.00; Public P/E multiple= $11/$0.55= 20 times; Private, Inc. is worth 20*$2.50=$50 per share + Multiple reflects what market is willing to pay today for comparable firm (like price/square foot in real estate) + Easy, ignores need to forecast future profitability and growth + Can be “creative”: Price/subscriber, Price/PhD multiples • “Something”: should have same valuation implication for peer firms as for valuation firm • EBITDA better than EBIT if depreciation patterns differ • EBIT better than EPS if financing differs
Problems when using multiples to estimate TV • Problem 1: the multiple is used at the TV horizon, but it is obtained from peer firms today! Will today’s valuation be the same later? ex: peer firm has high growth today, but valuation firm has low growth at TV • Problem 2: Distinguish Equity multiples (EPS, BVPS) from total Enterprise multiples (EBITDA, EBIT, Total Capital) Do not use a stock price multiple when the valuation (e.g. FCF) requires you to calculate the enterprise TV; use EBIT, EBITDA, … multiple • Problem 3: Subject to accounting distortions • Problem 4: Meaningless with negative values • Problem 5: Difficult to identify comparables
4. Technical issue: what are proper CAPM inputs? • The Weights of D, E: value weights, not book weights. • The cost of Debt: current, not historic yields • The cost of Equity: • Equity Risk Premium: Arithmetic, not Geometric • Risk-free rate: short- or long-term? (see below) • Beta: estimation issues (see below) • Beta: conceptual issues (see below) • Beta: unlevering and relevering (see below)
Short-term or Long-term Risk-free rate in CAPM? • CAPM is a 1 period model, so theory only recognizes THE risk free asset (=1 period) • 2 approaches: • K=T-Bill Rate + beta * E{ Market ret. – T-Bill rate} • K=T-Bond Rate + beta * E{ Market ret. – T-Bond rate} • Example for 2004 with arithmetic market premia: • ST: 1% + beta * {8.4%} (3 month T-Bill) • LT: 5% + beta * {6.4%} (30 yr T-Bond) • Best: Maturity of Risk free asset matches CF maturity (reflects opportunity cost of shareholders)
What does Risk-free mean? • What is a truly risk-free asset ? • There must be no risk of default • There must be no reinvestment risk • So to value a 5 year cash flow, we need: • A government security (one that will not default!) • A 5 year zero-coupon security: • Rolling over 3 month Treasury Bills has reinvestment risk after each 3 month period • 5 year positive coupon bond has reinvestment risk on the interest we need a 5 year zero-coupon default free government bond • Discount year 1 CF by 1-year zero coupon bond yield, year 2 CF by 2-year zero coupon bond yield, and so on (rarely done, except in pricing fixed-income securities)
Beta Estimation • Beta=slope coefficient of regression of stock return on market return • Source: Do it yourself (SLOPE or LINEST in Excel) or get it from someone else (Bloomberg/Value Line/BARRA/your friendly Investment Banker…) • 4 Technical Issues: • Frequency of data (daily? weekly? monthly?...) • Length of estimation window (2yrs? 5yrs?…) • Choice of Market Index • Estimation errors
Issue #1: Frequency of data • High frequency data (e.g. daily returns) allow for longer time series, more precise estimation • but: daily returns underestimate beta for illiquid stock that do not trade every day • Use weekly, monthly returns for illiquid stocks (or add lagged market return as additional explanatory variable if using daily data in the beta regression)
Issue #2: Length of Estimation Window • The more data, the better the estimate (usually) • If you go back too far : stale data? (different business environment, regulation, asset portfolio) • If you stick to the recent past: recent history in capital markets may be temporary
Issue #3: Choice of market Index • Theory requires “The market portfolio of all securities” (including real estate, foreign stocks, human capital) • With perfectly integrated capital markets: the World Market Portfolio • In Practice: Use a broad market index relevant to the company’s shareholders. In U.S.: S&P500, CRSP Value-weighted Index, Wilshire…
Issue #4: Estimation Errors • If a stock has a high (low) estimated beta, it is likely that it has a positive (negative) estimation error (if you had a 750 GMAT, does that mean you are truly smart or were you lucky with some of the questions on the test?) • Why estimation errors? • 1. Inaccurate raw data • 2. Estimation window too short/long • 3. Good (bad) firm-specific info is released at the same time as good (bad) overall market news (by coincidence or big bath theory) • Bloomberg smoothes beta (reverts to 1) to ‘handle’ estimation errors
Conceptual Issue: Beta and cash flow horizon • Common practice: use the same beta for each cash flow • This is incorrect when: • Leverage varies, and so does equity beta! See Project Finance applications later in course. Not an issue when using WACC: same % of Debt assumed! • Distant cash flows may have different systematic risk than short horizon cash flows (example: Assume GM launches a new vehicle. GM’s year 2 CF beta will be greater than its year 5 CF beta if high returns in year 2 attract competition and erode GM’s profits!)
Unlevering and relevering betas Equity Beta Beta 1. = * asset equity Equity + Debt Equity Beta Beta = * 2. equity asset Equity + Debt * (1 – tax rate) Formula 1 applies in the no-tax case, AND with positive taxes when the firm has a constant debt proportion (as in WACC). Formula 2 applies with positive taxes and when Debt is fixed in dollar terms.
“Too often in business, we measure with a micrometer, mark with a pencil, and cut with an ax. Despite advances in financial theory, the “ax” available for estimating company capital costs remains a blunt one…Be careful not to throw out the baby with the bath water. Do not reject the cost of capital …because your finance people are not able to give you a precise number. When in need, even a blunt ax is better than nothing” (Bruner et al, “Best Practices in Estimating the Cost of Capital: Survey and Synthesis”, Financial Management, Spring/Summer 1998)