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S4S Pub Quiz 3

S4S Pub Quiz 3. What is going to happen…. Split yourself into groups of 4/5 5 Rounds of question Answers after each round No phones!! Winners will be put into a draw for PODmedics subscripstion We will answer any questions you have about 3 rd year at the end  .

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S4S Pub Quiz 3

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  1. S4S Pub Quiz 3

  2. What is going to happen… • Split yourself into groups of 4/5 • 5 Rounds of question • Answers after each round • No phones!! • Winners will be put into a draw for PODmedicssubscripstion • We will answer any questions you have about 3rd year at the end 

  3. Round 1 Topics (numbers 1-10) • Affective disorder • TB • Diabetes • HIV/AIDS

  4. Affective Disorder 1. In ICD-10 guidelines, what are the 3 core features of severe depression? (3 marks)

  5. Affective Disorder 2. Name and describe the 2 types of bipolar affective disorder? (2 marks)

  6. TB 3. What is the primary route of TB transmission? (1 mark)

  7. TB 4. What is the stain you would perform to detect TB and what is the minimum number of sputum samples needed? (2 marks)

  8. Diabetes 5. Name 5 chronic complications of diabetes (5 marks)

  9. Diabetes 6. In what two ways does the polyol pathway cause damage to cells? (2 marks)

  10. Diabetes 7. Name 4 pathological processes you might see on the back of an eye of somebody with proliferative diabetic retinopathy? (4 marks)

  11. HIV/AIDS 8. Give 3 cells types that have CD4 receptors (3 marks)

  12. HIV/AIDS 9. Give 5 bodily fluids that contain HIV (5 marks)

  13. HIV/AIDS 10. Name 3 classes of HIV drugs and state how they work (6marks)

  14. Round 1- answers

  15. Affective Disorder • In ICD-10 guidelines, what are the 3 core features of severe depression? (3 marks) • Persistent sadness or low mood • Loss of interests or pleasure • Fatigue or low energy

  16. Affective Disorder 2. Name and describe the 2 types of bipolar affective disorder? (2 marks) • Type 1 BPAD – consists equally of depressive and manic episodes • Type 2 BPAD – mainly depressive episodes with occasional phases of hypomania.

  17. TB 3. What is the primary route of TB transmission? (1 mark) • Aerosol from an infected person.

  18. TB 4. What is the stain you would perform to detect TB and what is the minimum number of sputum samples needed? (2 marks) • Ziehl-Neelsen stain. • At least 3 samples before antibiotic treatment. 

  19. Diabetes 5. Name 5 chronic complications of diabetes (5 marks) • Diabetic nephropathy, diabetic retinopathy, diabetic foot, peripheral vascular disease, erectile dysfunction, increased infection risk, ulcers, blindness, glaucoma, cerebrovascular disease, coronary disease, peripheral neuropathy

  20. Diabetes 6. In what two ways does the polyol pathway cause damage to cells? (2 marks) • The polyol pathway works by converting glucose to sorbitol and then to fructose which in turn causes: • Cell oedema due to increased water absorption (osmolality changes) • Decreased antioxidants due to the increased sorbitol leading to increased likelihood of oxidative damage

  21. Diabetes 7. Name 4 pathological processes you might see on the back of an eye of somebody with proliferative diabetic retinopathy? (4 marks) • Copper/silver wiring, neovascularisation (increased blood vessels), cotton wool spots (ischaemia), flame or dot and blot haemorrhages, oedema, microaneurysms, hard exudates, fragile, tortuous blood vessels, phototherapy burns

  22. HIV/AIDS 8. Give 3 cells types that have CD4 receptors (3 marks)- can have any 3 of the below • T-helper cells • Macrophages • Microglial cells • Dendritic cells

  23. HIV/AIDS 9. Give 5 bodily fluids that contain HIV (5 marks) • Blood • Semen • Pre-ejaculate • Vaginal fluid • Breast milk

  24. HIV/AIDS • Name 3 classes of HIV drugs and state how they work (6marks) • Fusion inhibitors (egenfurvitide) bind to GP120 and prevent it binding to CD4 • CCR5 inhibitors (egmaraviroc) prevent co-binding to target cell CCR5 receptor • Reverse transcriptase inhibitors: NRTIs (eg, tenofovir) block active site of RT or NNRTIs (egnevirapine) change shape of RT • Integrase inhibitors (egraltegravir) block viral DNA incorporation into genome • Protease inhibitors (egindinavir) prevent viral cleavage

  25. Total marks available for round 1 33

  26. Round 2 Topics (1-10) • Breast Cancer • Anaemia • Cervical Cancer

  27. Breast Cancer 1. Name 3 well established risk factors for breast carcinoma: (3 marks)

  28. Breast Cancer 2. What are the 3 investigative steps in the initial investigation of a breast lump: (3 marks)

  29. Breast Cancer • 3. A 25 year old woman presents with a lump in her left breast which has been there for 6 months. On examination , there is a 3 cm firm, painless lump with a well defined margin. It feels mobile and ‘runs away from your fingers’ as you palpate it. • What is the most likely diagnosis in this case and why? (2 marks)

  30. Anaemia 4. Name 3 causes of a macrocytic anaemia (3 marks)

  31. Anaemia 5. Where is the hormone EPO mainly produced? (1 mark)

  32. Anaemia 6. Name 4 specific signs to iron deficiency anaemia (4 marks)

  33. Anaemia 7. What is the lifespan of a red blood cell and where are they destroyed? (2 marks)

  34. Cervical cancer 8. A 26 year old woman comes to you with her smear test results to you. She has been told that she has CIN 3. • Explain what this means? (1 mark)

  35. Cervical cancer 9. What is the next step in her the management of her smear result? (1 mark)

  36. Cervical cancer 10. What might you ask in her history to determine whether she has is at high risk of cervical cancer? (3 marks)

  37. Round 2- answers

  38. Breast Cancer • Name 3 well established risk factors for breast carcinoma: (3 marks) • Increasing age • Family history (highest risk is bilateral breast cancer in a pre-menopausal first degree relative) • Early menarche or late menopause • Nulliparity • First child over the age of 35 years

  39. Breast Cancer 2. What are the 3 investigative steps in the initial investigation of a breast lump: (3 marks) • Clinical examination • Imaging (mammography or USS) • Cytology/histology (Fine needle aspirate or core biopsy)

  40. Breast Cancer • 3. A 25 year old woman presents with a lump in her left breast which has been there for 6 months. On examination , there is a 3 cm firm, painless lump with a well defined margin. It feels mobile and ‘runs away from your fingers’ as you palpate it. • What is the most likely diagnosis in this case and why? (2 marks) Answer: Fibroadenoma. The age of the patient and features of the lump suggest this. These are smooth, firm, definite margins and are very mobile (sometimes described as ‘breast mice’!). This is the commonest cause of a breast lump in a woman of this age. The diagnosis would be confirmed by ultrasound scan.

  41. Anaemia 4. Name 3 causes of a macrocytic anaemia (3 marks) Any from: B12 deficiency, Folate deficiency, Alcohol, cytotoxic drugs, myeoldysplasia, liver disease, hypothyroidism, hyperlipidaemia, pregnancy

  42. Anaemia 5. Where is the hormone EPO mainly produced? (1 mark) • Kidney

  43. Anaemia 6. Name 4 specific signs to iron deficiency anaemia (4 marks) • Koilynichia • Angular stomatitis • Glossitis • Pica • Psychomotor delay in children

  44. Anaemia 7. What is the lifespan of a red blood cell and where are they destroyed? (2 marks) • 120 days • Spleen

  45. Cervical cancer 8. A 26 year old woman comes to you with her smear test results to you. She has been told that she has CIN 3. Explain what this means? (1 mark) • CIN 3 means that the cytological report shows severe dyskaryosis of cells and is the highest level in the CIN grading system.

  46. Cervical cancer 9. What is the next step in her the management of her smear result? (1 mark) • She must be referred for colposcopy.

  47. Cervical cancer 10. What might you ask in her history to determine whether she has is at high risk of cervical cancer? (3 marks) • Sexual history (Multiple sexual partners, age of first sex, contraception) • Smoker • COCP

  48. Total marks available for round 2 23

  49. Round 3 Topics (Q1-10) • Pre-eclampsia/eclampsia • Pneumonia • Paeds respiratory

  50. Pre-eclampsia • Define Pre-eclampsia (2 marks)

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