APES REVIEW #4

1. APES REVIEW #4

2. 1) Disposal of vegetable and animal waste by natural decomposition is called: a) composting b) surface impoundment c) land application d) integrated waste management e) sludge disposal

3. 2) The figure on the right indicate the types of material that went into landfills in 2001. Which piece of the landfill pie (a, b, c, d, or e) represents paper and paper products?

4. 3) Leachate is a major environmental hazard associated with solid waste disposal sites. How is leachate most commonly produced? a) leachate is gas that leaks from a hazardous waste disposal site b) nuclear decay of otherwise harmless material in a dump site c) leakage from deep-well disposal sites d) chemical reaction between waste material and the bedrock e) chemical reaction between wastes and water percolating through the dump

5. 4) An option for waste management that has the greatest negative impact on air quality is: a) composting b) recycling c) source reduction d) alchemy e) incineration

6. 5) Disposing of biodegradable toxic waste by land application is a cheap and efficient method because: a) the concept of dilute and disperse is adequate for toxic waste b) these materials are degraded by the microorganisms in the soil c) there is no limit to the amount of waste that can be applied to the soil d) the waste is a good fertilizer e) the practice is difficult to regulate and laws against it are difficult to enforce

7. 6) Why has Europe been more successful in recycling than the U.S.? I. landfill fees in Europe are much higher than in the U.S. II. the manufacturers are responsible for the disposal cost of packaging and industrial goods they produce III. recycling is required by law in almost all European countries a) I only b) II only c) III only d) I and II e) I, II and III

8. 7) The four main characteristics of hazardous waste that make it hazardous, according to the Resource Conservation & Recovery Act of 1979 include all of the following except: a) reactivity b) corrosivity c) ignitability d) toxicity e) infectiousness

9. 8) Love Canal, near Niagara Falls, New York, illustrates which of the following principles or problems? a) disposal of hazardous chemical waste in an uncontrolled site b) economic mineral reserves from sewage sludge c) wild species re-establishing themselves in an urban setting d) poor understanding of flood hazard e) the difficulty in finding new solid waste sites as old dumps are filled to capacity

10. 9) Microbial breakdown refers to: a) the use of living organisms to clean up hazardous substances in the environment b) the use of living organisms to perform chemical processing or to produce material such as animal food c) the concentration of toxic chemicals in an organism higher than are normally found in the environment d) the process of converting biomass into energy through fermentation e) a form of organic agriculture that relies on the use of biological pest controls

11. 10) The phenomenon in which city centers are hotter on average than surrounding areas is called: a) green belt b) heat island c) situation d) fall line e) site

12. 11) The location on a river that has many advantages for early cities, including: water power, navigation potential, and potential for bridge building a) green belt b) heat island c) situation d) fall line e) site

13. 12) In a natural ecosystem, evaporation is an important mechanism for: a) storing solar energy b) producing energy c) getting rid of too much surface water d) heating the surface e) cooling the surface

14. 13) Cities tend to be warmer than rural areas because of: I. reduced evaporation and transpiration II. burning of fossil fuels III. increased albedo of the ground surface a) I only b) II only c) I and II d) II and III e) I, II, and III

15. 14) What does the “tragedy of the commons” lead to? a) indirect costs b) policy instruments c) marginal costs d) overexploitation of resources e) direct costs

16. 14) Use of DDT as a pesticide in the 1940s and 50s led to widespread damage to various wildlife species, from sharks to eagles. Which of the following terms most closely describes the adverse environmental impact of DDT use: a) direct cost b) environmental intangible c) discount factor d) externality e) marginal cost

17. 15) Biological resources are threatened by the so-called “tragedy of the commons” when they occur in: a) Third World countries b) land owned by multinational corporations, with no specific national loyalty c) areas with access open to many different parties d) privately owned land e) anywhere on Earth

18. 16) The Chagos Archipelago contains the Great Chagos Bank, the largest atoll structure in the world. What the major function of the Great Chagos Bank that makes it a global commons? a) home to rare reptile species b) tuna fishery c) international boat racing events d) eco tourism e) all of the above

19. 17) In a total free-market system, commercial enterprises maximize profits by paying only ____________ costs and ignoring _____________ . a) indirect; direct costs b) intangible; externalities c) direct; externalities d) mandatory; supply and demand e) direct; the discount factor

20. 18) Mineral deposit that forms as rough spheres on the ocean floor are called: a) secondary enrichment b) sulfide deposit c) biohydrometallurgy d) mineral reserve e) manganese oxide nodules

21. 19) Artificial enrichment of mineral ores by injection of microscopic organisms into the rock is called: a) secondary enrichment b) sulfide deposit c) biohydrometallurgy d) mineral reserve e) manganese oxide nodules

22. 20) Minerals may be concentrated by crystallization within a magma chamber. What force concentrates the crystallized minerals? a) heat b) pressure c) gravity d) fission e) temperature

23. 21) Mineral resources are: a) infinite b) nonrenewable c) chemical byproducts d) alternative energy sources e) rare and high-cost materials

24. 22) Evaporites form: a) in nutrient-rich open ocean water b) in enclosed or semi-enclosed saline waters by evaporation c) under high pressure d) within buried saline rocks e) in coral reefs

25. 23) Which of the following refers to the persistent weather pattern that concentrates ozone-destroying chemicals in the stratosphere over Antarctica: a) polar stratospheric clouds b) hydrofluorocarbons (HCFCs) c) Dobson unit d) polar vortex e) mid-latitude ozone depletion

26. 24) Which of the following refers to 1 part ozone per billion particles of atmosphere: a) polar stratospheric clouds b) hydrofluorocarbons (HCFCs) c) Dobson unit d) polar vortex e) mid-latitude ozone depletion

27. 25) Which range shown (a, b, c, d, or e) represents the position of the stratosphere? a b c d e

28. 26) Chloroflourocarbons (CFCs) that travel to the stratosphere pose a threat because: a) they are highly reactive and caustic b) they contribute to photochemical smog c) they are a major greenhouse gas d) they lead to destruction of ozone e) they lead to acid rain

29. 27) Name the international agreement that required the phase-out of ozone-depleting chemicals: a) Geneva Convention b) Rio Conference c) Montreal Protocol d) Eiger Sanction e) Treaty of Versailles

30. 28) Ozone is the only known gas that absorbs: a) UVA radiation b) UVB radiation c) UVC radiation d) all of the above e) none of the above

31. 29) What is the natural source of ozone in the stratosphere? a) photochemical reaction b) combustion of fossil fuels c) volcanic eruptions d) spontaneous decay of diatomic oxygen e) solar wind

32. 30) Ozone blocks ultraviolet light. What becomes of the UV radiation afterwards? a) it becomes heat in the stratosphere b) it becomes infrared radiation c) it is reflected to space d) it is scattered so that its effects on the surface are reduced e) it combines with ozone to form water vapor

33. 31) Ozone is the _________ variety of oxygen. a) ionic b) diatomic c) inert d) isotopic e) triatomic

34. 32) This is an ailment caused by long-term exposure to air with high concentrations of soot or carbon-rich dust: a) formaldehyde b) sick building syndrome c) chimney effect d) black lung disease e) radon

35. 33) Twelve days after a sample of radon gas (with a half-life of about four days) is emitted into a sealed room, __________ of the original amount remains. a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/8 d) 1/12 e) 1/16

36. 33) Reduced air circulation on aircraft has all of the following effects, dangers, or tradeoffs except: a) increased CO2 levels b) decreased fuel efficiency c) increased danger of the transmittal of bacterial infections d) decreased on-board humidity e) increased reports of headaches, fatigue, nausea, etc.

37. 34) Which of the following indoor air pollutants contains NOx, CO, hydrogen cyanide, etc. and results in an estimated 43,000 deaths per year in the U.S. from lung cancer and heart disease? a) mold b) cleaning solvents c) secondhand tobacco smoke d) asbestos e) formaldehyde and other preservatives

38. 35) All of the following are methods to reduce the concentration of radon in a home except: a) sealing cracks or openings in foundation b) ventilation or suction beneath foundation c) better insulation and weatherization d) filtering of well water e) replacement of inappropriate building material

39. 36) In a large office building, a number of employees begin complaining of headaches, dizziness, and nausea at about the same time. This is an example of: a) Legionnaires’ disease b) high concentrations of radon gas c) chimney effect d) mass psychosis e) sick building syndrome

40. 37) Asbestos is hazardous to human health because: a) if releases toxic fumes b) if trapped in the lungs, it decays and damages DNA c) it is composed of small fibers, which damage skin or lung tissue d) if trapped in the lungs, if can be carcinogenic e) it is a potent toxin, damaging the neurological systems of humans and animals

41. 38) General class of pollution that characterizes urban area with frequent, strong sunshine a) atmospheric inversion b) fugitive sources c) photochemical smog d) primary pollutants e) buffers

42. 39) This class of pollution is produced only at certain times, such as when the wind is blowing a) atmospheric inversion b) fugitive sources c) photochemical smog d) primary pollutants e) buffers

43. 40) Atmospheric inversion conditions over urban areas pose a problem primarily because: a) the conditions are conducive to photochemical smog b) pollutants are trapped and concentrated c) the inhabitants can be cut off from oxygen d) many sensitive plants and animals freeze to death e) CFCs are concentrated and destroy protective ozone

44. 41) Sulfur dioxide emissions are caused by: I. burning coal II. automobile emissions III. photochemical break-down of ozone in the stratosphere a) I only b) II only c) III only d) I and II e) I, II, and III

45. 42) Particulate pollutants introduced into the atmosphere may have which of the following effects? I. reflect incoming sunlight, lowering the temperature at the surface II. absorb incoming sunlight, raising the temperature in the atmosphere III. act as condensation nuclei, decreasing precipitation a) I only b) II only c) III only d) I and II e) I, II, and III

46. 43) Ozone is of great benefit in the stratosphere but of great harm to humans in the lower troposphere. Which of the following is not an effect on people? a) strong eye irritant b) aggravates asthma c) reduces the ability of the circulatory system to transport oxygen d) injury to cells in the respiratory system e) coughing and chest discomfort

47. 44) Tall smokestacks on power plants were designed to: a) allow exhaust to cool before entering the atmosphere b) disperse pollutants, so they wouldn’t cause harmful effects in the immediate area c) trap sulfur emissions d) augment the chimney effect in the area around the plant e) inhibit the reactions that form sulfuric acid

48. 45) Sulfur dioxide is: a) a yellow-brown gas that contributes to photochemical smog b) a colorless and odorless gas that binds to hemoglobin in blood c) a colorless and odorless gas that damages the lungs d) a gas with a “rotten egg” odor that is highly toxic and corrosive e) a reactive gas produced, in part, by photochemical reaction of sunlight with various air pollutants