CISSP exam dumps

1. ISC2 CISSP Exam Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Questions & Answers (Demo Version - Limited Content) Thank you for Downloading CISSP exam PDF Demo Get Full File: https://www.certifiedumps.com/isc2/cissp-dumps.html

2. Page 2 Questions & Answers PDF Exam Topics DemoVersion Breakdown Number of Questions Exam Topics Topic 1: Exam Pool A 9 Topic 2: Exam Pool B 6 Topic 3: Security Architecture and Engineering 5 Topic 4: Communication and Network Security 6 Topic 5: Identity and Access Management (IAM) 4 Topic 6: Security Assessment and Testing 4 Topic 7: Security Operations 11 Topic 8: Software Development Security 6 Topic 9: Exam Set A 14 Topic 10: Exam Set B 14 Topic 11: Exam Set C 12 Topic 12: New Questions B 30 Topic 13: NEW Questions C 30 Total Questions (Demo) 150 www.certifiedumps.co m

3. Page 3 Questions & Answers PDF Version: 42.0 Topic 1, Exam Pool A Question: 1 All of the following items should be included in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) questionnaire EXCEPT questions that A. determine the risk of a business interruption occurring B. determine the technological dependence of the business processes C. Identify the operational impacts of a business interruption D. Identify the financial impacts of a business interruption Answer: A Explanation: A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is a process that identifies and evaluates the potential effects of natural and man-made disasters on business operations. The BIA questionnaire is a tool that collects information from business process owners and stakeholders about the criticality, dependencies, recovery objectives, and resources of their processes. The BIA questionnaire should include questions that: Identify the operational impacts of a business interruption, such as loss of revenue, customer satisfaction, reputation, legal obligations, etc. Identify the financial impacts of a business interruption, such as direct and indirect costs, fines, penalties, etc. Determine the technological dependence of the business processes, such as hardware, software, www.certifiedumps.com

4. Page 4 Questions & Answers PDF network, data, etc. Establish the recovery time objectives (RTO) and recovery point objectives (RPO) for each business process, which indicate the maximum acceptable downtime and data loss, respectively. The BIA questionnaire should not include questions that determine the risk of a business interruption occurring, as this is part of the risk assessment process, which is a separate activity from the BIA. The risk assessment process identifies and analyzes the threats and vulnerabilities that could cause a business interruption, and estimates the likelihood and impact of such events. The risk assessment process also evaluates the existing controls and mitigation strategies, and recommends additional measures to reduce the risk to an acceptable level. Question: 2 Which of the following actions will reduce risk to a laptop before traveling to a high risk area? A. Examine the device for physical tampering B. Implement more stringent baseline configurations C. Purge or re-image the hard disk drive D. Change access codes Answer: C Explanation: Purging or re-imaging the hard disk drive of a laptop before traveling to a high risk area will reduce the risk of data compromise or theft in case the laptop is lost, stolen, or seized by unauthorized parties. Purging or re-imaging the hard disk drive will erase all the data and applications on the laptop, leaving only the operating system and the essential software. This will minimize the exposure of sensitive or confidential information that could be accessed by malicious actors. Purging or re- imaging the hard disk drive should be done using secure methods that prevent data recovery, such as overwriting, degaussing, or physical destruction. The other options will not reduce the risk to the laptop as effectively as purging or re-imaging the hard disk drive. Examining the device for physical tampering will only detect if the laptop has been compromised after the fact, but will not prevent it from happening. Implementing more stringent baseline configurations will improve the security settings and policies of the laptop, but will not protect the data if the laptop is bypassed or breached Changing access codes will make it www.certifiedumps.com

5. Page 5 Questions & Answers PDF unauthorized users to log in to the laptop, but will not prevent them from accessing the data if they use other methods, such as booting from a removable media or removing the hard disk drive. Question: 3 Which of the following represents the GREATEST risk to data confidentiality? A. Network redundancies are not implemented B. Security awareness training is not completed C. Backup tapes are generated unencrypted D. Users have administrative privileges Answer: C Explanation: Generating backup tapes unencrypted represents the greatest risk to data confidentiality, as it exposes the data to unauthorized access or disclosure if the tapes are lost, stolen, or intercepted. Backup tapes are often stored off-site or transported to remote locations, which increases the chances of them falling into the wrong hands. If the backup tapes are unencrypted, anyone who obtains them can read the data without any difficulty. Therefore, backup tapes should always be encrypted using strong algorithms and keys, and the keys should be protected and managed separately from the tapes. The other options do not pose as much risk to data confidentiality as generating backup tapes unencrypted. Network redundancies are not implemented will affect the availability and reliability of the network, but not necessarily the confidentiality of the data. Security awareness training is not completed will increase the likelihood of human errors or negligence that could compromise the data, but not as directly as generating backup tapes unencrypted. Users have Question: 4 administrative privileges will grant users more access and control over the system and the data, but not as widely as generating backup tapes unencrypted. www.certifiedumps.com

6. Page 6 Questions & Answers PDF What is the MOST important consideration from a data security perspective when an organization plans to relocate? A. Ensure the fire prevention and detection systems are sufficient to protect personnel B. Review the architectural plans to determine how many emergency exits are present C. Conduct a gap analysis of a new facilities against existing security requirements D. Revise the Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity (DR/BC) plan Answer: C Explanation: When an organization plans to relocate, the most important consideration from a data security perspective is to conduct a gap analysis of the new facilities against the existing security requirements. A gap analysis is a process that identifies and evaluates the differences between the current state and the desired state of a system or a process. In this case, the gap analysis would compare the security controls and measures implemented in the old and new locations, and identify any gaps or weaknesses that need to be addressed. The gap analysis would also help to determine the costs and resources needed to implement the necessary security improvements in the new facilities. The other options are not as important as conducting a gap analysis, as they do not directly address the data security risks associated with relocation. Ensuring the fire prevention and detection systems are sufficient to protect personnel is a safety issue, not a data security issue. Reviewing the architectural plans to determine how many emergency exits are present is also a safety issue, not a data security issue. Revising the Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity (DR/BC) plan is a good practice, but it is not a preventive measure, rather a reactive one. A DR/BC plan is a document that outlines how an organization will recover from a disaster and resume its normal operations. A DR/BC plan should be updated regularly, not only when relocating. Question: 5 A company whose Information Technology (IT) services are being delivered from a Tier 4 data center, is preparing a companywide Business Continuity Planning (BCP). Which of the following failures should the IT manager be concerned with? www.certifiedumps.com

7. Page 7 Questions & Answers PDF A. Application B. Storage C. Power D. Network Answer: A Explanation: A company whose IT services are being delivered from a Tier 4 data center should be most concerned with application failures when preparing a companywide BCP. A BCP is a document that describes how an organization will continue its critical business functions in the event of a disruption or disaster. A BCP should include a risk assessment, a business impact analysis, a recovery strategy, and a testing and maintenance plan. A Tier 4 data center is the highest level of data center classification, according to the Uptime Institute. A Tier 4 data center has the highest level of availability, reliability, and fault tolerance, as it has multiple and independent paths for power and cooling, and redundant and backup components for all systems. A Tier 4 data center has an uptime rating of 99.995%, which means it can only experience 0.4 hours of downtime per year. Therefore, the likelihood of a power, storage, or network failure in a Tier 4 data center is very low, and the impact of such a failure would be minimal, as the data center can quickly switch to alternative sources or routes. However, a Tier 4 data center Question: 6 cannot prevent or mitigate application failures, which are caused by software bugs, configuration errors, or malicious attacks. Application failures can affect the functionality, performance, or security of the IT services, and cause data loss, corruption, or When assessing an organization’s security policy according to standards established by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001 and 27002, when can management responsibilities be defined? Therefore, the IT manager should be most concerned with application failures when preparing a BCP, and ensure that the applications are properly designed, tested, updated, and monitored. breach. A. Only when assets are clearly defined B. Only when standards are defined www.certifiedumps.com

8. Page 8 Questions & Answers PDF C. Only when controls are put in place D. Only procedures are defined Answer: B Explanation: When assessing an organization’s security policy according to standards established by the ISO 27001 and 27002, management responsibilities can be defined only when standards are defined. Standards are the specific rules, guidelines, or procedures that support the implementation of the security policy. Standards define the minimum level of security that must be achieved by the organization, and provide the basis for measuring compliance and performance. Standards also assign roles and responsibilities to different levels of management and staff, and specify the reporting and escalation procedures. Management responsibilities are the duties and obligations that managers have to ensure the effective and efficient execution of the security policy and standards. Management responsibilities include providing leadership, direction, support, and resources for the security program, establishing and communicating the security objectives and expectations, ensuring compliance with the legal and regulatory requirements, monitoring and reviewing the security performance and incidents, and initiating corrective and preventive actions when needed. Management responsibilities cannot be defined without standards, as standards provide the framework and criteria for defining what managers need to do and how they need to do it. Management responsibilities also depend on the scope and complexity of the security policy and standards, which may vary depending on the size, nature, and context of the organization. Therefore, standards must be defined before management responsibilities can be defined. The other options are not correct, as they are not prerequisites for defining management responsibilities. Assets are the resources that need to be protected by the security policy and standards, but they do not determine the management responsibilities. Controls are the measures that are implemented to reduce the security risks and achieve the security objectives, but they do not determine the management responsibilities. Procedures are the detailed instructions that describe how to perform the security tasks and activities, but they do not determine the management responsibilities. Question: 7 Which of the following types of technologies would be the MOST cost-effective method to provide a www.certifiedumps.com

9. Page 9 Questions & Answers PDF reactive control for protecting personnel in public areas? A. Install mantraps at the building entrances B. Enclose the personnel entry area with polycarbonate plastic C. Supply a duress alarm for personnel exposed to the public D. Hire a guard to protect the public area Answer: C Explanation: Supplying a duress alarm for personnel exposed to the public is the most cost-effective method to provide a reactive control for protecting personnel in public areas. A duress alarm is a device that allows a person to signal for help in case of an emergency, such as an attack, a robbery, or a medical condition. A duress alarm can be activated by pressing a button, pulling a cord, or speaking a code word. A duress alarm can alert security personnel, law enforcement, or other responders to the location and nature of the emergency, and initiate appropriate actions. A duress alarm is a reactive control because it responds to an incident after it has occurred, rather than preventing it from happening. The other options are not as cost-effective as supplying a duress alarm, as they involve more expensive or complex technologies or resources. Installing mantraps at the building entrances is a preventive control that restricts the access of unauthorized persons to the facility, but it also requires more space, maintenance, and supervision. Enclosing the personnel entry area with polycarbonate plastic is a preventive control that protects the personnel from physical attacks, but it also reduces the visibility and ventilation of the area. Hiring a guard to protect the public area is a deterrent control that discourages potential attackers, but it also involves paying wages, benefits, and training costs. Question: 8 An important principle of defense in depth is that achieving information security requires a balanced focus on which PRIMARY elements? A. Development, testing, and deployment www.certifiedumps.com

10. Page 10 Questions & Answers PDF B. Prevention, detection, and remediation C. People, technology, and operations D. Certification, accreditation, and monitoring Answer: C Explanation: Animportant principle of defense in depth is that achieving information security requires a balanced focus on the primary elements of people, technology, and operations. People are the users, administrators, managers, and other stakeholders who are involved in the security process. They need to be aware, trained, motivated, and accountable for their security roles and responsibilities. Technology is the hardware, software, network, and other tools that are used to implement the security controls and measures. They need to be selected, configured, updated, and monitored according to the security standards and best practices. Operations are the policies, procedures, processes, and activities that are performed to achieve the security objectives and requirements. They need to be documented, reviewed, audited, and improved continuously to ensure their effectiveness and efficiency. The other options are not the primary elements of defense in depth, but rather the phases, functions, or outcomes of the security process. Development, testing, and deployment are the phases of the security life cycle, which describes how security is integrated into the system development process. Prevention, detection, and remediation are the functions of the security management, which describes how security is maintained and improved over time. Certification, accreditation, and monitoring are the outcomes of the security evaluation, which describes how security is assessed and verified against the criteria and standards. Question: 9 Intellectual property rights are PRIMARY concerned with which of the following? A. Owner’s ability to realize financial gain B. Owner’s ability to maintain copyright C. Right of the owner to enjoy their creation D. Right of the owner to control delivery method Answer: A Explanation: www.certifiedumps.com

11. Page 11 Questions & Answers PDF Intellectual property rights are primarily concerned with the owner’s ability to realize financial gain from their creation. Intellectual property is a category of intangible assets that are the result of human creativity and innovation, such as inventions, designs, artworks, literature, music, software, etc. Intellectual property rights are the legal rights that grant the owner the exclusive control over the use, reproduction, distribution, and modification of their intellectual property. Intellectual property rights aim to protect the owner’s interests and incentives, and to reward them for their contribution to the society and economy. The other options are not the primary concern of intellectual property rights, but rather the secondary or incidental benefits or aspects of them. The owner’s ability to maintain copyright is a means of enforcing intellectual property rights, but not the end goal of them. The right of the owner to enjoy their creation is a personal or moral right, but not a legal or economic one. The right of the owner to control the delivery method is a specific or technical aspect of intellectual Topic 2, Exam Pool B property rights, but not a general or fundamental one. Question: 10 Which of the following is MOST important when assigning ownership of an asset to a department? A. The department should report to the business owner B. Ownership of the asset should be periodically reviewed C. Individual accountability should be ensured D. All members should be trained on their responsibilities Answer: C Explanation: When assigning ownership of an asset to a department, the most important factor is to ensure individual accountability for the asset. Individual accountability means that each person who has access to or uses the asset is responsible for its protection and proper handling. Individual accountability also implies that each person who causes or contributes to a security breach or incident involving the asset can be identified and held liable. Individual accountability can be achieved by implementing security controls such as authentication, authorization, auditing, and logging. www.certifiedumps.com

12. Page 12 Questions & Answers PDF The other options are not as important as ensuring individual accountability, as they do not directly address the security risks associated with the asset. The department should report to the business owner is a management issue, not a security issue. Ownership of the asset should be periodically reviewed is a good practice, but it does not prevent misuse or abuse of the asset. All members should be trained on their responsibilities is a preventive measure, but it does not guarantee compliance or enforcement of the responsibilities. Question: 11 Which one of the following affects the classification of data? A. Assigned security label B. Multilevel Security (MLS) architecture C. Minimum query size D. Passage of time Answer: D Explanation: The passage of time is one of the factors that affects the classification of data. Data classification is the process of assigning a level of sensitivity or criticality to data based on its value, impact, and legal requirements. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate security controls and handling procedures for the data. However, data classification is not static, but dynamic, meaning that it can change over time depending on various factors. One of these factors is the passage of time, which can affect the relevance, usefulness, or sensitivity of the data. For example, data that is classified as confidential or secret at one point in time may become obsolete, outdated, or declassified at a later point in time, and thus require a lower level of protection. Conversely, data that is classified as public or unclassified at one point in time may become more valuable, sensitive, or regulated at a later point in time, and thus require a higher level of protection. Therefore, data classification should be reviewed and updated periodically to reflect the changes in the data over time. The other options are not factors that affect the classification of data, but rather the outcomes or components of data classification. Assigned security label is the result of data classification, which indicates the level of sensitivity or criticality of the data. Multilevel Security (MLS) architecture is a system that supports data classification, which allows different levels of access to data based on the clearance and need-to-know of the users. Minimum query size is a parameter that can be used to enforce data classification, which limits the amount of data that can be retrieved or displayed at a time. www.certifiedumps.com

13. Page 13 Questions & Answers PDF Question: 12 Which of the following BEST describes the responsibilities of a data owner? A. Ensuring quality and validation through periodic audits for ongoing data integrity B. Maintaining fundamental data availability, including data storage and archiving C. Ensuring accessibility to appropriate users, maintaining appropriate levels of data security D. Determining the impact the information has on the mission of the organization Answer: D Explanation: The best description of the responsibilities of a data owner is determining the impact the information has on the mission of the organization. A data owner is a person or entity that has the authority and accountability for the creation, collection, processing, and disposal of a set of data. A data owner is also responsible for defining the purpose, value, and classification of the data, as well as the security requirements and controls for the data. A data owner should be able to determine the impact the information has on the mission of the organization, which means assessing the potential consequences of losing, compromising, or disclosing the data. The impact of the The other options are not the best descriptions of the responsibilities of a data owner, but rather the responsibilities of other roles or functions related to data management. Ensuring quality and validation through periodic audits for ongoing data integrity is a responsibility of a data steward, who is a person or entity that oversees the quality, consistency, and usability of the data. Maintaining fundamental data availability, including data storage and archiving is a responsibility of a data custodian, who is a person or entity that implements and maintains the technical and physical security of the data. Ensuring accessibility to appropriate users, maintaining appropriate levels of data security is a responsibility of a data controller, who is a person or entity that determines the purposes and means of processing the data. information on the mission of the organization is one of the main criteria for data classification, which helps to establish the appropriate level of protection and handling for the data. www.certifiedumps.com

14. Page 14 Questions & Answers PDF Question: 13 An organization has doubled in size due to a rapid market share increase. The size of the Information Technology (IT) staff has maintained pace with this growth. The organization hires several contractors whose onsite time is limited. The IT department has pushed its limits building servers and rolling out workstations and has a backlog of account management requests. Which contract is BEST in offloading the task from the IT staff? A. Platform as a Service (PaaS) B. Identity as a Service (IDaaS) C. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) D. Software as a Service (SaaS) Answer: B Explanation: Identity as a Service (IDaaS) is the best contract in offloading the task of account management from the IT staff. IDaaS is a cloud-based service that provides identity and access management (IAM) functions, such as user authentication, authorization, provisioning, deprovisioning, password management, single sign-on (SSO), and multifactor authentication (MFA). IDaaS can help the organization to streamline and automate the account management process, reduce the workload and costs of the IT staff, and improve the security and compliance of the user accounts. IDaaS can also support the contractors who have limited onsite time, as they can access the organization’s resources remotely and securely through the IDaaS provider. The other options are not as effective as IDaaS in offloading the task of account management from the IT staff, as they do not provide IAM functions. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud-based service that provides a platform for developing, testing, and deploying applications, but it does not manage the user accounts for the applications. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) is a cloud-based service that provides virtual desktops for users to access applications and data, but it does not manage the user accounts for the virtual desktops. Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud-based service that www.certifiedumps.com

15. Page 15 Questions & Answers PDF provides software applications for users to use, but it does not manage the user accounts for the software applications. Question: 14 When implementing a data classification program, why is it important to avoid too much granularity? A. The process will require too many resources B. It will be difficult to apply to both hardware and software C. It will be difficult to assign ownership to the data D. The process will be perceived as having value Answer: A Explanation: When implementing a data classification program, it is important to avoid too much granularity, because the process will require too many resources. Data classification is the process of assigning a level of sensitivity or criticality to data based on its value, impact, and legal requirements. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate security controls and handling procedures for the data. However, data classification is not a simple or straightforward process, as it involves many factors, such as the nature, context, and scope of the data, the stakeholders, the regulations, and the standards. If the data classification program has too many levels or categories of data, it will increase the complexity, cost, and time of the process, and reduce the efficiency and effectiveness of the data protection. Therefore, data classification should be done with a balance between granularity and simplicity, and follow the principle of proportionality, which means that the level of protection should be proportional to the level of risk. The other options are not the main reasons to avoid too much granularity in data classification, but rather the potential challenges or benefits of data classification. It will be difficult to apply to both hardware and software is a challenge of data classification, as it requires consistent and compatible methods and tools for labeling and protecting data across different types of media and devices. It will be difficult to assign ownership to the data is a challenge of data classification, as it www.certifiedumps.com

16. Page 16 Questions & Answers PDF Question: 15 In a data classification scheme, the data is owned by the A. system security managers B. business managers C. Information Technology (IT) managers D. end users Answer: B Explanation: In a data classification scheme, the data is owned by the business managers. Business managers are the persons or entities that have the authority and accountability for the creation, collection, processing, and disposal of a set of data. Business managers are also responsible for defining the purpose, value, and classification of the data, as well as the security requirements and controls for the data. Business managers should be able to determine the impact the information has on the mission of the organization, which means assessing the potential consequences of losing, compromising, or disclosing the data. The impact of the information on the mission of the organization is one of the main criteria for data classification, which helps to establish the appropriate level of protection and handling for the data. The other options are not the data owners in a data classification scheme, but rather the other roles or functions related to data management. System security managers are the persons or entities that oversee the security of the information systems and networks that store, process, and transmit the data. They are responsible for implementing and maintaining the technical and physical security of the data, as well as monitoring and auditing the security performance and incidents. Information Technology (IT) managers are the persons or entities that manage the IT resources and services that support the business processes and functions that use the data. They are responsible for www.certifiedumps.com ensuring the availability, reliability, and scalability of the IT infrastructure and applications, as well as providing

17. Page 17 Questions & Answers PDF Topic 3, Security Architecture and Engineering Question: 16 Which security service is served by the process of encryption plaintext with the sender’s private key and decrypting cipher text with the sender’s public key? A. Confidentiality B. Integrity C. Identification D. Availability Answer: C Explanation: The security service that is served by the process of encrypting plaintext with the sender’s private key and decrypting ciphertext with the sender’s public key is identification. Identification is the process of verifying the identity of a person or entity that claims to be who or what it is. Identification can be achieved by using public key cryptography and digital signatures, which are based on the process of encrypting plaintext with the sender’s private key and decrypting ciphertext with the sender’s public key. This process works as follows: The sender has a pair of public and private keys, and the public key is shared with the receiver in advance. The sender encrypts the plaintext message with its private key, which produces a ciphertext that is also a digital signature of the message. The sender sends the ciphertext to the receiver, along with the plaintext message or a hash of the message. The receiver decrypts the ciphertext with the sender’s public key, which produces the same plaintext message or hash of the message. The receiver compares the decrypted message or hash with the original message or hash, and verifies the identity of the sender if they match. www.certifiedumps.com

18. Page 18 Questions & Answers PDF The process of encrypting plaintext with the sender’s private key and decrypting ciphertext with the sender’s public key serves identification because it ensures that only the sender can produce a valid ciphertext that can be decrypted by the receiver, and that the receiver can verify the sender’s identity by using the sender’s public key. This process also provides non-repudiation, which means that the sender cannot deny sending the message or the receiver cannot deny receiving the message, as the ciphertext serves as a proof of origin and delivery. The other options are not the security services that are served by the process of encrypting plaintext with the sender’s private key and decrypting ciphertext with the sender’s public key. Confidentiality is the process of ensuring that the message is only readable by the intended parties, and it is achieved by encrypting plaintext with the receiver’s public key and decrypting ciphertext with the receiver’s private key. Integrity is the process of ensuring that the message is not modified or corrupted during transmission, and it is achieved by using hash functions and message authentication codes. Availability is the process of ensuring that the message is accessible and usable by the authorized parties, and it is achieved by using redundancy, backup, and recovery mechanisms. Question: 17 Which of the following mobile code security models relies only on trust? A. Code signing B. Class authentication C. Sandboxing D. Type safety Answer: A Explanation: www.certifiedumps.com

19. Page 19 Questions & Answers PDF Code signing is the mobile code security model that relies only on trust. Mobile code is a type of software that can be transferred from one system to another and executed without installation or compilation. Mobile code can be used for various purposes, such as web applications, applets, scripts, macros, etc. Mobile code can also pose various security risks, such as malicious code, unauthorized access, data leakage, etc. Mobile code security models are the techniques that are used to protect the systems and users from the threats of mobile code. Code signing is a mobile code security model that relies only on trust, which means that the security of the mobile code depends on the reputation and credibility of the code provider. Code signing works as follows: The code provider has a pair of public and private keys, and obtains a digital certificate from a trusted third party, such as a certificate authority (CA), that binds the public key to the identity of the code provider. The code provider signs the mobile code with its private key and attaches the digital certificate to the mobile code. The code consumer receives the mobile code and verifies the signature and the certificate with the public key of the code provider and the CA, respectively. The code consumer decides whether to trust and execute the mobile code based on the identity and reputation of the code provider. Code signing relies only on trust because it does not enforce any security restrictions or controls on the mobile code, but rather leaves the decision to the code consumer. Code signing also does not guarantee the quality or functionality of the mobile code, but rather the authenticity and integrity of the code provider. Code signing can be effective if the code consumer knows and trusts the code provider, and if the code provider follows the security standards and best practices. However, code signing can also be ineffective if the code consumer is unaware or careless of the code provider, or if the code provider is compromised or malicious. The other options are not mobile code security models that rely only on trust, but rather on other techniques that limit or isolate the mobile code. Class authentication is a mobile code security model that verifies the permissions and capabilities of the mobile code based on its class or type, and allows or denies the execution of the mobile code accordingly. Sandboxing is a mobile code security model that executes the mobile code in a separate and restricted environment, and prevents the mobile code from accessing or affecting the system resources or data. Type safety is a mobile code security model that checks the validity and consistency of the mobile code, and prevents the mobile code from performing illegal or unsafe operations. Question: 18 Which technique can be used to make an encryption scheme more resistant to a known plaintext attack? www.certifiedumps.com

20. Page 20 Questions & Answers PDF A. Hashing the data before encryption B. Hashing the data after encryption C. Compressing the data after encryption D. Compressing the data before encryption Answer: D Explanation: Compressing the data before encryption is a technique that can be used to make an encryption scheme more resistant to a known plaintext attack. A known plaintext attack is a type of cryptanalysis where the attacker has access to some pairs of plaintext and ciphertext encrypted with the same key, and tries to recover the key or decrypt other ciphertexts. A known plaintext attack can exploit the statistical properties or patterns of the plaintext or the ciphertext to reduce the search space or guess the key. Compressing the data before encryption can reduce the redundancy and increase the entropy of the plaintext, making it harder for the attacker to find any correlations or similarities between the plaintext and the ciphertext. Compressing the data before encryption can also reduce the size of the plaintext, making it more difficult for the attacker to obtain enough plaintext- ciphertext pairs for a successful attack. The other options are not techniques that can be used to make an encryption scheme more resistant to a known plaintext attack, but rather techniques that can introduce other security issues or inefficiencies. Hashing the data before encryption is not a useful technique, as hashing is a one-way function that cannot be reversed, and the encrypted hash cannot be decrypted to recover the original data. Hashing the data after encryption is also not a useful technique, as hashing does not add any security to the encryption, and the hash can be easily computed by anyone who has access to the ciphertext. Compressing the data after encryption is not a recommended technique, as compression algorithms usually work better on uncompressed data, and compressing the ciphertext can introduce errors or vulnerabilities that can compromise the encryption. Question: 19 What is the second phase of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) key/certificate life-cycle management? A. Implementation Phase www.certifiedumps.com

21. Page 21 Questions & Answers PDF B. Initialization Phase C. Cancellation Phase D. Issued Phase Answer: B Explanation: The second phase of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) key/certificate life-cycle management is the initialization phase. PKI is a system that uses public key cryptography and digital certificates to provide authentication, confidentiality, integrity, and non-repudiation for electronic transactions. PKI key/certificate life-cycle management is the process of managing the creation, distribution, usage, storage, revocation, and expiration of keys and certificates in a PKI system. The key/certificate life- cycle management consists of six phases: pre-certification, initialization, certification, operational, suspension, and termination. The initialization phase is the second phase, where the key pair and the certificate request are generated by the end entity or the registration authority (RA). The initialization phase involves the following steps: The end entity or the RA generates a key pair, consisting of a public key and a private key, using a secure and random method. The end entity or the RA creates a certificate request, which contains the public key and other identity information of the end entity, such as the name, email, organization, etc. The end entity or the RA submits the certificate request to the certification authority (CA), which is the trusted entity that issues and signs the certificates in the PKI system. The end entity or the RA securely stores the private key and protects it from unauthorized access, loss, or compromise. The other options are not the second phase of PKI key/certificate life-cycle management, but rather other phases. The implementation phase is not a phase of PKI key/certificate life-cycle management, but rather a phase of PKI system deployment, where the PKI components and policies are installed and configured. The cancellation phase is not a phase of PKI key/certificate life-cycle management, but rather a possible outcome of the termination phase, where the key pair and the certificate are permanently revoked and deleted. The issued phase is not a phase of PKI key/certificate life-cycle management, but rather a possible outcome of the certification phase, where the CA verifies and approves the certificate request and issues the certificate to the end entity or the RA. Question: 20 www.certifiedumps.com

22. Page 22 Questions & Answers PDF Whichcomponent of the Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) specification contains the data required to estimate the severity of vulnerabilities identified automated vulnerability assessments? A. Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) B. Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) C. Asset Reporting Format (ARF) D. Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language (OVAL) Answer: B Explanation: The component of the Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) specification that contains the data required to estimate the severity of vulnerabilities identified by automated vulnerability assessments is the Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS). CVSS is a framework that provides a standardized and objective way to measure and communicate the characteristics and impacts of vulnerabilities. CVSS consists of three metric groups: base, temporal, and environmental. The base metric group captures the intrinsic and fundamental properties of a vulnerability that are constant over time and across user environments. The temporal metric group captures the characteristics of a vulnerability that change over time, such as the availability and effectiveness of exploits, patches, and workarounds. The environmental metric group captures the characteristics of a vulnerability that are relevant and unique to a user’s environment, such as the configuration and importance of the affected system. Each metric group has a set of metrics that are assigned values based on the vulnerability’s attributes. The values are then combined using a formula to produce a numerical score that ranges from 0 to 10, where 0 means no impact and 10 means critical impact. The score can also be translated into a qualitative rating that ranges from none to low, medium, high, and critical. CVSS provides a consistent and comprehensive way to estimate the severity of vulnerabilities and prioritize their remediation. The other options are not components of the SCAP specification that contain the data required to estimate the severity of vulnerabilities identified by automated vulnerability assessments, but rather components that serve other purposes. Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) is a component that provides a standardized and unique identifier and description for each publicly known vulnerability. CVE facilitates the sharing and comparison of vulnerability information across different sources and tools. Asset Reporting Format (ARF) is a component that provides a standardized and www.certifiedumps.com

23. Page 23 Questions & Answers PDF extensible format for expressing the information about the assets and their characteristics, such as configuration, vulnerabilities, and compliance. ARF enables the aggregation and correlation of asset information from different sources and tools. Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language (OVAL) is a component that provides a standardized and expressive language for defining and testing the state of a system for the presence of vulnerabilities, configuration issues, patches, and other aspects. OVAL enables the automation and interoperability of vulnerability assessment and management. Topic 4, Communication and Network Security Question: 21 What is the purpose of an Internet Protocol (IP) spoofing attack? A. To send excessive amounts of data to a process, making it unpredictable B. To intercept network traffic without authorization C. To disguise the destination address from a target’s IP filtering devices D. To convince a system that it is communicating with a known entity Answer: D Explanation: The purpose of an Internet Protocol (IP) spoofing attack is to convince a system that it is communicating with a known entity. IP spoofing is a technique that involves creating and sending IP packets with a forged source IP address, which is usually the IP address of a trusted or authorized host. IP spoofing can be used for various malicious purposes, such as: Bypassing IP-based access control lists (ACLs) or firewalls that filter traffic based on the source IP address. Launching denial-of-service (DoS) or distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks by flooding a target system with spoofed packets, or by reflecting or amplifying the traffic from intermediate systems. Hijacking or intercepting a TCP session by predicting or guessing the sequence numbers and sending spoofed packets to the legitimate parties. www.certifiedumps.com

24. Page 24 Questions & Answers PDF Gaining unauthorized access to a system or network by impersonating a trusted or authorized host and exploiting its privileges or credentials. The purpose of IP spoofing is to convince a system that it is communicating with a known entity, because it allows the attacker to evade detection, avoid responsibility, and exploit trust relationships. The other options are not the main purposes of IP spoofing, but rather the possible consequences or methods of IP spoofing. To send excessive amounts of data to a process, making it unpredictable is a possible consequence of IP spoofing, as it can cause a DoS or DDoS attack. To intercept network traffic without authorization is a possible method of IP spoofing, as it can be used to hijack or intercept a TCP session. To disguise the destination address from a target’s IP filtering devices is not a valid option, as IP spoofing involves forging the source address, not the destination address. Question: 22 At what level of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model is data at rest on a Storage Area Network (SAN) located? A. Link layer B. Physical layer C. Session layer D. Application layer Answer: B Explanation: Data at rest on a Storage Area Network (SAN) is located at the physical layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model. The OSI model is a conceptual framework that describes how data is transmitted and processed across different layers of a network. The OSI model consists of seven layers: application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, and physical. The physical layer is the lowest layer of the OSI model, and it is responsible for the transmission and reception of raw bits over a physical medium, such as cables, wires, or optical fibers. The physical layer defines the physical characteristics of the medium, such as voltage, frequency, modulation, connectors, etc. The physical layer also deals with the physical topology of the network, such as bus, ring, star, mesh, etc. www.certifiedumps.com

25. Page 25 Questions & Answers PDF A Storage Area Network (SAN) is a dedicated network that provides access to consolidated and block-level data storage. A SAN consists of storage devices, such as disks, tapes, or arrays, that are connected to servers or clients via a network infrastructure, such as switches, routers, or hubs. A SAN allows multiple servers or clients to share the same storage devices, and it provides high performance, availability, scalability, and security for data storage. Data at rest on a SAN is located at the physical layer of the OSI model, because it is stored as raw bits on the physical medium of the storage devices, and it is accessed by the servers or clients through the physical medium of the network infrastructure. Question: 23 In a Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) stack, which layer is responsible for negotiating and establishing a connection with another node? A. Transport layer B. Application layer C. Network layer D. Session layer Answer: A Explanation: The transport layer of the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) stack is responsible for negotiating and establishing a connection with another node. The TCP/IP stack is a simplified version of the OSI model, and it consists of four layers: application, transport, internet, and link. The transport layer is the third layer of the TCP/IP stack, and it is responsible for providing reliable and efficient end-to-end data transfer between two nodes on a network. The transport layer uses protocols, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) or User Datagram Protocol (UDP), to segment, sequence, acknowledge, and reassemble the data packets, and to handle error detection and correction, flow control, and congestion control. The transport layer also provides connection- oriented or connectionless services, depending on the protocol used. TCP is a connection-oriented protocol, which means that it establishes a logical connection between two nodes before exchanging data, and it maintains the connection until the data transfer is complete. TCP uses a three-way handshake to negotiate and establish a connection with another node. The three-way handshake works as follows: www.certifiedumps.com

26. Page 26 Questions & Answers PDF The client sends a SYN (synchronize) packet to the server, indicating its initial sequence number and requesting a connection. The server responds with a SYN-ACK (synchronize-acknowledge) packet, indicating its initial sequence number and acknowledging the client’s request. The client responds with an ACK (acknowledge) packet, acknowledging the server’s response and completing the connection. UDP is a connectionless protocol, which means that it does not establish or maintain a connection between two nodes, but rather sends data packets independently and without any guarantee of delivery, order, or integrity. UDP does not use a handshake or any other mechanism to negotiate and establish a connection with another node, but rather relies on the application layer to handle any connection-related issues. Question: 24 Which of the following is used by the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) to determine packet formats? A. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) B. Link Control Protocol (LCP) C. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) D. Packet Transfer Protocol (PTP) Answer: B Explanation: Link Control Protocol (LCP) is used by the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) to determine packet formats. PPP is a data link layer protocol that provides a standard method for transporting network layer packets over point-to-point links, such as serial lines, modems, or dial-up connections. PPP supports various network layer protocols, such as IP, IPX, or AppleTalk, and it can encapsulate them in a common frame format. PPP also provides features such as authentication, compression, error detection, and multilink aggregation. LCP is a subprotocol of PPP that is responsible for establishing, configuring, maintaining, and terminating the point-to-point connection. LCP negotiates and agrees on various options and parameters for the PPP link, such as the maximum transmission unit (MTU), the authentication method, the compression method, the error detection method, and the packet format. LCP uses a series of messages, such as configure-request, configure-ack, configure-nak, configure-reject, terminate-request, terminate-ack, code-reject, protocol-reject, echo-request, echo- www.certifiedumps.com

27. Page 27 Questions & Answers PDF reply, and discard-request, to communicate and exchange information between the PPP peers. The other options are not used by PPP to determine packet formats, but rather for other purposes. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is a tunneling protocol that allows the creation of virtual private networks (VPNs) over public networks, such as the Internet. L2TP encapsulates PPP frames in IP datagrams and sends them across the tunnel between two L2TP endpoints. L2TP does not determine the packet format of PPP, but rather uses it as a payload. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) is an authentication protocol that is used by PPP to verify the identity of the remote peer before allowing access to the network. CHAP uses a challenge-response mechanism that involves a random number (nonce) and a hash function to prevent replay attacks. CHAP does not determine the packet format of PPP, but rather uses it as a transport. Packet Transfer Protocol (PTP) is not a valid option, as there is no such protocol with this name. There is a Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE), which is a protocol that encapsulates PPP frames in Ethernet frames and allows the use of PPP over Ethernet networks. PPPoE does not determine the packet format of PPP, but rather uses it as a payload. Question: 25 Which of the following operates at the Network Layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model? A. Packet filtering B. Port services filtering C. Content filtering D. Application access control Answer: A Explanation: Packet filtering operates at the network layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model. The OSI model is a conceptual framework that describes how data is transmitted and processed across different layers of a network. The OSI model consists of seven layers: application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, and physical. The network layer is the third layer from the bottom of the OSI model, and it is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets between different networks or subnets. The network layer uses logical addresses, such as IP addresses, to identify the source and destination of the data packets, and it uses protocols, such as IP, ICMP, or ARP, to perform the routing and forwarding functions. www.certifiedumps.com

28. Questions & Answers PDF Page 28 Packet filtering is a technique that controls the access to a network or a host by inspecting the incoming and outgoing data packets and applying a set of rules or policies to allow or deny them. Packet filtering can be performed by devices, such as routers, firewalls, or proxies, that operate at the network layer of the OSI model. Packet filtering typically examines the network layer header of the data packets, such as the source and destination IP addresses, the protocol type, or the fragmentation flags, and compares them with the predefined rules or policies. Packet filtering can also examine the transport layer header of the data packets, such as the source and destination port numbers, the TCP flags, or the sequence numbers, and compare them with the rules or policies. Packet filtering can provide a basic level of security and performance for a network or a host, but it also has some limitations, such as the inability to inspect the payload or the content of the data packets, the vulnerability to spoofing or fragmentation attacks, or the complexity and maintenance of the rules or policies. The other options are not techniques that operate at the network layer of the OSI model, but rather at other layers. Port services filtering is a technique that controls the access to a network or a host by inspecting the transport layer header of the data packets and applying a set of rules or policies to allow or deny them based on the port numbers or the services. Port services filtering operates at the transport layer of the OSI model, which is the fourth layer from the bottom. Content filtering is a technique that controls the access to a network or a host by inspecting the application layer payload or the content of the data packets and applying a set of rules or policies to allow or deny them based on the keywords, URLs, file types, or other criteria. Content filtering operates at the application layer of the OSI model, which is the seventh and the topmost layer. Application access control is a technique that controls the access to a network or a host by inspecting the application layer identity or the credentials of the users or the processes and applying a set of rules or policies to allow or deny them based on the roles, permissions, or other attributes. Application access control operates at the application layer of the OSI model, which is the seventh and the topmost layer. Question: 26 An input validation and exception handling vulnerability has been discovered on a critical web-based system. Which of the following is MOST suited to quickly implement a control? A. Add a new rule to the application layer firewall B. Block access to the service C. Install an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) D. Patch the application source code Answer: A Explanation: www.certifiedumps.com

29. Page 29 Questions & Answers PDF Adding a new rule to the application layer firewall is the most suited to quickly implement a control for an input validation and exception handling vulnerability on a critical web-based system. An input validation and exception handling vulnerability is a type of vulnerability that occurs when a web- based system does not properly check, filter, or sanitize the input data that is received from the users or other sources, or does not properly handle the errors or exceptions that are generated by the system. An input validation and exception handling vulnerability can lead to various attacks, such as: Injection attacks, such as SQL injection, command injection, or cross-site scripting (XSS), where the attacker inserts malicious code or commands into the input data that are executed by the system or the browser, resulting in data theft, data manipulation, or remote code execution. Buffer overflow attacks, where the attacker sends more input data than the system can handle, causing the system to overwrite the adjacent memory locations, resulting in data corruption, system crash, or arbitrary code execution. Denial-of-service (DoS) attacks, where the attacker sends malformed or invalid input data that cause the system to generate excessive errors or exceptions, resulting in system overload, resource exhaustion, or system failure. An application layer firewall is a device or software that operates at the application layer of the OSI model and inspects the application layer payload or the content of the data packets. An application layer firewall can provide various functions, such as: Filtering the data packets based on the application layer protocols, such as HTTP, FTP, or SMTP, and the application layer attributes, such as URLs, cookies, or headers. for an input validation and exception handling vulnerability on a critical web-based system, because it can prevent or reduce the impact of the attacks by filtering or blocking the malicious or invalid input data that exploit the vulnerability. For example, a new rule can be added to the application layer firewall to: Adding a new rule to the application layer firewall is the most suited to quickly implement a control Blocking or allowing the data packets based on the predefined rules or policies that specify the criteria for the application layer protocols and attributes. Reject or drop the data packets that contain SQL statements, shell commands, or script tags in the input data, which can prevent or reduce the injection attacks. Logging and auditing the data packets for the application layer protocols and attributes. Modifying or transforming the data packets for the application layer protocols and Reject or drop the data packets that exceed a certain size or length in the input data, which can attributes. prevent or reduce the buffer overflow attacks. Reject or drop the data packets that contain malformed or invalid syntax or characters in the input www.certifiedumps.com

30. Page 30 Questions & Answers PDF data, which can prevent or reduce the DoS attacks. Adding a new rule to the application layer firewall can be done quickly and easily, without requiring any changes or patches to the web-based system, which can be time-consuming and risky, especially for a critical system. Adding a new rule to the application layer firewall can also be done remotely and centrally, without requiring any physical access or installation on the web-based system, which can be inconvenient and costly, especially for a distributed system. The other options are not the most suited to quickly implement a control for an input validation and exception handling vulnerability on a critical web-based system, but rather options that have other limitations or drawbacks. Blocking access to the service is not the most suited option, because it can cause disruption and unavailability of the service, which can affect the business operations and customer satisfaction, especially for a critical system. Blocking access to the service can also be a temporary and incomplete solution, as it does not address the root cause of the vulnerability or prevent the attacks from occurring again. Installing an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is not the most suited option, because IDS only monitors and detects the attacks, and does not prevent or respond to them. IDS can also generate false positives or false negatives, which can affect the accuracy and reliability of the detection. IDS can also be overwhelmed or evaded by the attacks, which can affect the effectiveness and efficiency of the detection. Patching the application source code is not the most suited option, because it can take a long time and require a lot of resources and testing to identify, fix, and deploy the patch, especially for a complex and critical system. Patching the application source code can also introduce new errors or vulnerabilities, which can affect the functionality and security of the system. Patching the application source code can also be difficult or impossible, if the system is proprietary or legacy, which can affect the feasibility and compatibility of the patch. Topic 5, Identity and Access Management (IAM) Question: 27 A manufacturing organization wants to establish a Federated Identity Management (FIM) system with its 20 different supplier companies. Which of the following is the BEST solution for the manufacturing organization? A. Trusted third-party certification B. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) C. Security Assertion Markup language (SAML) D. Cross-certification www.certifiedumps.com

31. Page 31 Questions & Answers PDF Answer: C Explanation: Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) is the best solution for the manufacturing organization that wants to establish a Federated Identity Management (FIM) system with its 20 different supplier companies. FIM is a process that allows the sharing and recognition of identities across different organizations that have a trust relationship. FIM enables the users of one organization to access the resources or services of another organization without having to create or maintain multiple accounts or credentials. FIM can provide several benefits, such as: Improving the user experience and convenience by reducing the need for multiple logins and passwords Enhancing the security and privacy by minimizing the exposure and duplication of sensitive information Increasing the efficiency and productivity by streamlining the authentication and authorization processes Reducing the cost and complexity by simplifying the identity management and administration SAML is a standard protocol that supports FIM by allowing the exchange of authentication and authorization information between different parties. SAML uses XML-based messages, called assertions, to convey the identity, attributes, and entitlements of a user to a service provider. SAML defines three roles for the parties involved in FIM: Identity provider (IdP): the party that authenticates the user and issues the SAML assertion Service provider (SP): the party that provides the resource or service that the user wants to access User or principal: the party that requests access to the resource or service SAML works as follows: The user requests access to a resource or service from the SP The SP redirects the user to the IdP for authentication The IdP authenticates the user and generates a SAML assertion that contains the user’s identity, attributes, and entitlements The IdP sends the SAML assertion to the SP The SP validates the SAML assertion and grants or denies access to the user based on the information in the assertion www.certifiedumps.com

32. Page 32 Questions & Answers PDF SAML is the best solution for the manufacturing organization that wants to establish a FIM system with its 20 different supplier companies, because it can enable the seamless and secure access to the resources or services across the different organizations, without requiring the users to create or maintain multiple accounts or credentials. SAML can also provide interoperability and compatibility between different platforms and technologies, as it is based on a standard and open protocol. The other options are not the best solutions for the manufacturing organization that wants to establish a FIM system with its 20 different supplier companies, but rather solutions that have other limitations or drawbacks. Trusted third-party certification is a process that involves a third party, such as a certificate authority (CA), that issues and verifies digital certificates that contain the public key and identity information of a user or an entity. Trusted third-party certification can provide authentication and encryption for the communication between different parties, but it does not provide authorization or entitlement information for the access to the resources or services. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a protocol that allows the access and management of directory services, such as Active Directory, that store the identity and attribute information of users and entities. LDAP can provide a centralized and standardized way to store and retrieve identity and attribute information, but it does not provide a mechanism to exchange or federate the information across different organizations. Cross-certification is a process that involves two or more CAs that establish a trust relationship and recognize each other’s certificates. Cross-certification can extend the trust and validity of the certificates across different domains or organizations, but it does not provide a mechanism to exchange or federate the identity, attribute, or entitlement information. Question: 28 Which of the following BEST describes an access control method utilizing cryptographic keys derived from a smart card private key that is embedded within mobile devices? A. Derived credential B. Temporary security credential C. Mobile device credentialing service D. Digest authentication Answer: A Explanation: Derived credential is the best description of an access control method utilizing cryptographic keys derived from a smart card private key that is embedded within mobile devices. A smart card is a device that contains a microchip that stores a private key and a digital certificate that are used for www.certifiedumps.com

33. Page 33 Questions & Answers PDF authentication and encryption. A smart card is typically inserted into a reader that is attached to a computer or a terminal, and the user enters a personal identification number (PIN) to unlock the smart card and access the private key and the certificate. A smart card can provide a high level of security and convenience for the user, as it implements a two-factor authentication method that combines something the user has (the smart card) and something the user knows (the PIN). However, a smart card may not be compatible or convenient for mobile devices, such as smartphones or tablets, that do not have a smart card reader or a USB port. To address this issue, a derived credential is a solution that allows the user to use a mobile device as an alternative to a smart card for authentication and encryption. A derived credential is a cryptographic key and a certificate that are derived from the smart card private key and certificate, and that are stored on the mobile device. A derived credential works as follows: The user inserts the smart card into a reader that is connected to a computer or a terminal, and enters the PIN to unlock the smart card The user connects the mobile device to the computer or the terminal via a cable, Bluetooth, or Wi-Fi The user initiates a request to generate a derived credential on the mobile device The computer or the terminal verifies the smart card certificate with a trusted CA, and generates a derived credential that contains a cryptographic key and a certificate that are derived from the smart card private key and certificate The computer or the terminal transfers the derived credential to the mobile device, and stores it in a secure element or a trusted platform module on the device The user disconnects the mobile device from the computer or the terminal, and removes the smart card from the reader The user can use the derived credential on the mobile device to authenticate and encrypt the communication with other parties, without requiring the smart card or the PIN A derived credential can provide a secure and convenient way to use a mobile device as an alternative to a smart card for authentication and encryption, as it implements a two-factor authentication method that combines something the user has (the mobile device) and something the user is (the biometric feature). A derived credential can also comply with the standards and policies for the use of smart cards, such as the Personal Identity Verification (PIV) or the Common Access Card (CAC) programs. The other options are not the best descriptions of an access control method utilizing cryptographic keys derived from a smart card private key that is embedded within mobile devices, but rather descriptions of other methods or concepts. Temporary security credential is a method that involves issuing a short-lived credential, such as a token or a password, that can be used for a limited time or a specific purpose. Temporary security credential can provide a flexible and dynamic way to grant access to the users or entities, but it does not involve deriving a cryptographic key from a smart card www.certifiedumps.com

34. Page 34 Questions & Answers PDF private key. Mobile device credentialing service is a concept that involves providing a service that can issue, manage, or revoke credentials for mobile devices, such as certificates, tokens, or passwords. Mobile device credentialing service can provide a centralized and standardized way to control the access of mobile devices, but it does not involve deriving a cryptographic key from a smart card private key. Digest authentication is a method that involves using a hash function, such as MD5, to generate a digest or a fingerprint of the user’s credentials, such as the username and password, and sending it to the server for verification. Digest authentication can provide a more secure way to authenticate the user than the basic authentication, which sends the credentials in plain text, but it does not involve deriving a cryptographic key from a smart card private key. Question: 29 Users require access rights that allow them to view the average salary of groups of employees. Which control would prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary? A. Limit access to predefined queries B. Segregate the database into a small number of partitions each with a separate security level C. Implement Role Based Access Control (RBAC) D. Reduce the number of people who have access to the system for statistical purposes Answer: A Explanation: Limiting access to predefined queries is the control that would prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary, if they only require access rights that allow them to view the average salary of groups of employees. A query is a request for information from a database, which can be expressed in a structured query language (SQL) or a graphical user interface (GUI). A query can specify the criteria, conditions, and operations for selecting, filtering, sorting, grouping, and aggregating the data from the database. A predefined query is a query that has been created and stored in advance by the database administrator or the data owner, and that can be executed by the authorized users without any modification. A predefined query can provide several benefits, such as: Improving the performance and efficiency of the database by reducing the processing time and resources required for executing the queries Enhancing the security and confidentiality of the database by restricting the access and exposure of the sensitive data to the authorized users and purposes www.certifiedumps.com

35. Page 35 Questions & Answers PDF Increasing the accuracy and reliability of the database by preventing the errors or inconsistencies that might occur due to the user input or modification of the queries Reducing the cost and complexity of the database by simplifying the query design and management Limiting access to predefined queries is the control that would prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary, if they only require access rights that allow them to view the average salary of groups of employees, because it can ensure that the users can only access the data that is relevant and necessary for their tasks, and that they cannot access or manipulate the data that is beyond their scope or authority. For example, a predefined query can be created and stored that calculates and displays the average salary of groups of employees based on certain criteria, such as department, position, or experience. The users who need to view this information can execute this predefined query, but they cannot modify it or create their own queries that might reveal the individual employee’s salary or other sensitive data. The other options are not the controls that would prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary, if they only require access rights that allow them to view the average salary of groups of employees, but rather controls that have other purposes or effects. Segregating the database into a small number of partitions each with a separate security level is a control that would improve the performance and security of the database by dividing it into smaller and manageable segments that can be accessed and processed independently and concurrently. However, this control would not prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary, if they have access to the partition that contains the salary data, and if they can create or modify their own queries. Implementing Role Based Access Control (RBAC) is a control that would enforce the access rights and permissions of the users based on their roles or functions within the organization, rather than their identities or attributes. However, this control would not prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary, if their roles or functions require them to access the salary data, and if they can create or modify their own queries. Reducing the number of people who have access to the system for statistical purposes is a control that would reduce the risk and impact of unauthorized access or disclosure of the sensitive data by minimizing the exposure and distribution of the data. However, this control would not prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary, if they are among the people who have access to the system, and if they can create or modify their own queries. Question: 30 What is the BEST approach for controlling access to highly sensitive information when employees have the same level of security clearance? A. Audit logs B. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) www.certifiedumps.com

36. Page 36 Questions & Answers PDF C. Two-factor authentication D. Application of least privilege Answer: D Applying the principle of least privilege is the best approach for controlling access to highly sensitive information when employees have the same level of security clearance. The principle of least privilege is a security concept that states that every user or process should have the minimum amount of access rights and permissions that are necessary to perform their tasks or functions, and nothing more. The principle of least privilege can provide several benefits, such as: Improving the security and confidentiality of the information by limiting the access and exposure of the sensitive data to the authorized users and purposes Reducing the risk and impact of unauthorized access or disclosure of the information by minimizing the attack surface and the potential damage Increasing the accountability and auditability of the information by tracking and logging the access and usage of the sensitive data Enhancing the performance and efficiency of the system by reducing the complexity and overhead of the access control mechanisms Applying the principle of least privilege is the best approach for controlling access to highly sensitive information when employees have the same level of security clearance, because it can ensure that the employees can only access the information that is relevant and necessary for their tasks or functions, and that they cannot access or manipulate the information that is beyond their scope or authority. For example, if the highly sensitive information is related to a specific project or department, then only the employees who are involved in that project or department should have access to that information, and not the employees who have the same level of security clearance but are not involved in that project or department. The other options are not the best approaches for controlling access to highly sensitive information when employees have the same level of security clearance, but rather approaches that have other purposes or effects. Audit logs are records that capture and store the information about the events and activities that occur within a system or a network, such as the access and usage of the sensitive data. Audit logs can provide a reactive and detective layer of security by enabling the monitoring and analysis of the system or network behavior, and facilitating the investigation and response of the incidents. However, audit logs cannot prevent or reduce the access or disclosure of the sensitive information, but rather provide evidence or clues after the fact. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) is a method that enforces the access rights and permissions of the users based on their roles or www.certifiedumps.com

37. Page 37 Questions & Answers PDF functions within the organization, rather than their identities or attributes. RBAC can provide a granular and dynamic layer of security by defining and assigning the roles and permissions according to the organizational structure and policies. However, RBAC cannot control the access to highly sensitive information when employees have the same level of security clearance and the same role or function within the organization, but rather rely on other criteria or mechanisms. Two-factor authentication is a technique that verifies the identity of the users by requiring them to provide two pieces of evidence or factors, such as something they know (e.g., password, PIN), something they have (e.g., token, smart card), or something they are (e.g., fingerprint, face). Two-factor authentication can provide a strong and preventive layer of security by preventing unauthorized access to the system or network by the users who do not have both factors. However, two-factor authentication cannot control the access to highly sensitive information when employees have the same level of security clearance and the same two factors, but rather rely on othe criteria or mechanisms. Topic 6, Security Assessment and Testing Question: 31 Which of the following is of GREATEST assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations? A. Change management processes B. User administration procedures C. Operating System (OS) baselines D. System backup documentation Answer: C Explanation: Operating System (OS) baselines are of greatest assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations. OS baselines are standard or reference configurations that define the desired and secure state of an OS, including the settings, parameters, patches, and updates. OS baselines can provide several benefits, such as: Improving the security and compliance of the OS by applying the best practices and recommendations from the vendors, authorities, or frameworks Enhancing the performance and efficiency of the OS by optimizing the resources and functions Increasing the consistency and uniformity of the OS by reducing the variations and deviations www.certifiedumps.com

38. Page 38 Questions & Answers PDF Facilitating the monitoring and auditing of the OS by providing a baseline for comparison and measurement OS baselines are of greatest assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations, because they can enable the auditors to evaluate and verify the current and actual state of the OS against the desired and secure state of the OS. OS baselines can also help the auditors to identify and report any gaps, issues, or risks in the OS configurations, and to recommend or implement any corrective or preventive actions. The other options are not of greatest assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations, but rather of assistance for other purposes or aspects. Change management processes are processes that ensure that any changes to the system configurations are planned, approved, implemented, and documented in a controlled and consistent manner. Change management processes can improve the security and reliability of the system configurations by preventing or reducing the errors, conflicts, or disruptions that might occur due to the changes. However, change management processes are not of greatest assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations, because they do not define the desired and secure state of the system configurations, but rather the procedures and controls for managing the changes. User administration procedures are procedures that define the roles, responsibilities, and activities for creating, modifying, deleting, and managing the user accounts and access rights. User administration procedures can enhance the security and accountability of the user accounts and access rights by enforcing the principles of least privilege, separation of duties, and need to know. However, user administration procedures are not of greatest assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations, because they do not define the desired and secure state of the system configurations, but rather the rules and tasks for administering the users. System backup documentation is documentation that records the information and details about the system backup processes, such as the backup frequency, type, location, retention, and recovery. System backup documentation can increase the availability and resilience of the system by ensuring that the system data and configurations can be restored in case of a loss or damage. However, system backup documentation is not of greatest assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations, because it does not define the desired and secure state of the system configurations, but rather the backup and recovery of the system configurations. Question: 32 A Virtual Machine (VM) environment has five guest Operating Systems (OS) and provides strong isolation. What MUST an administrator review to audit a user’s access to data files? A. Host VM monitor audit logs B. Guest OS access controls C. Host VM access controls D. Guest OS audit logs www.certifiedumps.com

39. Page 39 Questions & Answers PDF Answer: D Explanation: Guest OS audit logs are what an administrator must review to audit a user’s access to data files in a VM environment that has five guest OS and provides strong isolation. A VM environment is a system that allows multiple virtual machines (VMs) to run on a single physical machine, each with its own OS and applications. A VM environment can provide several benefits, such as: Improving the utilization and efficiency of the physical resources by sharing them among multiple VMs Enhancing the security and isolation of the VMs by preventing or limiting the interference or communication between them Increasing the flexibility and scalability of the VMs by allowing them to be created, modified, deleted, or migrated easily and quickly A guest OS is the OS that runs on a VM, which is different from the host OS that runs on the physical machine. A guest OS can have its own security controls and mechanisms, such as access controls, encryption, authentication, and audit logs. Audit logs are records that capture and store the information about the events and activities that occur within a system or a network, such as the access and usage of the data files. Audit logs can provide a reactive and detective layer of security by enabling the monitoring and analysis of the system or network behavior, and facilitating the investigation and response of the incidents. Guest OS audit logs are what an administrator must review to audit a user’s access to data files in a VM environment that has five guest OS and provides strong isolation, because they can provide the most accurate and relevant information about the user’s actions and interactions with the data files on the VM. Guest OS audit logs can also help the administrator to identify and report any unauthorized or suspicious access or disclosure of the data files, and to recommend or implement any corrective or preventive actions. The other options are not what an administrator must review to audit a user’s access to data files in a VM environment that has five guest OS and provides strong isolation, but rather what an administrator might review for other purposes or aspects. Host VM monitor audit logs are records that capture and store the information about the events and activities that occur on the host VM monitor, which is the software or hardware component that manages and controls the VMs www.certifiedumps.com

40. Page 40 Questions & Answers PDF what an administrator must configure and implement to protect the data files. Host VM access controls are rules and mechanisms that regulate and restrict the access and permissions of the users and processes to the VMs on the physical machine. Host VM access controls can provide a granular and dynamic layer of security by defining and assigning the roles and permissions according to the organizational structure and policies. However, host VM access controls are not what an administrator must review to audit a user’s access to data files, but rather what an administrator must configure and implement to protect the VMs. Question: 33 Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure? A. Executive audiences will understand the outcomes of testing and most appropriate next steps for corrective actions to be taken B. Technical teams will understand the testing objectives, testing strategies applied, and business risk associated with each vulnerability C. Management teams will understand the testing objectives and reputational risk to the organization D. Technical and management teams will better understand the testing objectives, results of each test phase, and potential impact levels Answer: D Explanation: Technical and management teams will better understand the testing objectives, results of each test phase, and potential impact levels is the primary benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure. Security testing is a process that involves evaluating and verifying the security posture, vulnerabilities, and threats of a system or a network, using various methods and techniques, such as vulnerability assessment, penetration testing, code review, and compliance checks. Security testing can provide several benefits, such as: Improving the security and risk management of the system or network by identifying and addressing the security weaknesses and gaps Enhancing the security and decision making of the system or network by providing the evidence and information for the security analysis, evaluation, and reporting Increasing the security and improvement of the system or network by providing the feedback and input for the security response, remediation, and optimization www.certifiedumps.com

41. Page 41 Questions & Answers PDF A security testing report is a document that summarizes and communicates the findings and recommendations of the security testing process to the relevant stakeholders, such as the technical and management teams. A security testing report can have various formats and structures, depending on the scope, purpose, and audience of the report. However, a formalized security testing report format and structure is one that follows a standard and consistent template, such as the one proposed by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) in the Special Publication 800- 115, Technical Guide to Information Security Testing and Assessment. A formalized security testing report format and structure can have several components, such as: Executive summary: a brief overview of the security testing objectives, scope, methodology, results, and conclusions Introduction: a detailed description of the security testing background, purpose, scope, assumptions, limitations, and constraints Methodology: a detailed explanation of the security testing approach, techniques, tools, and procedures Results: a detailed presentation of the security testing findings, such as the vulnerabilities, threats, risks, and impact levels, organized by test phases or categories Recommendations: a detailed proposal of the security testing suggestions, such as the remediation, mitigation, or prevention strategies, prioritized by impact levels or risk ratings Conclusion: a brief summary of the security testing outcomes, implications, and future steps Technical and management teams will better understand the testing objectives, results of each test phase, and potential impact levels is the primary benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure, because it can ensure that the security testing report is clear, comprehensive, and consistent, and that it provides the relevant and useful information for the technical and management teams to make informed and effective decisions and actions regarding the system or network security. The other options are not the primary benefits of using a formalized security testing report format and structure, but rather secondary or specific benefits for different audiences or purposes. Executive audiences will understand the outcomes of testing and most appropriate next steps for corrective actions to be taken is a benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure, but it is not the primary benefit, because it is more relevant for the executive summary component of the report, which is a brief and high-level overview of the report, rather than the entire report. Technical teams will understand the testing objectives, testing strategies applied, and business risk associated with each vulnerability is a benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure, but it is not the primary benefit, because it is more relevant for the methodology and results components of the report, which are more technical and detailed parts of the report, rather than the entire report. Management teams will understand the testing objectives and reputational risk to the organization is a benefit of using a formalized security testing report www.certifiedumps.com

42. Page 42 Questions & Answers PDF format and structure, but it is not the primary benefit, because it is more relevant for the introduction and conclusion components of the report, which are more contextual and strategic parts of the report, rather than the entire report. Question: 34 Which of the following could cause a Denial of Service (DoS) against an authentication system? A. Encryption of audit logs B. No archiving of audit logs C. Hashing of audit logs D. Remote access audit logs Answer: D Explanation: Remote access audit logs could cause a Denial of Service (DoS) against an authentication system. A DoS attack is a type of attack that aims to disrupt or degrade the availability or performance of a system or a network by overwhelming it with excessive or malicious traffic or requests. An authentication system is a system that verifies the identity and credentials of the users or entities that want to access the system or network resources or services. An authentication system can use various methods or factors to authenticate the users or entities, such as passwords, tokens, certificates, biometrics, or behavioral patterns. Remote access audit logs are records that capture and store the information about the events and activities that occur when the users or entities access the system or network remotely, such as via the internet, VPN, or dial-up. Remote access audit logs can provide a reactive and detective layer of security by enabling the monitoring and analysis of the remote access behavior, and facilitating the investigation and response of the incidents. Remote access audit logs could cause a DoS against an authentication system, because they could consume a large amount of disk space, memory, or bandwidth on the authentication system, especially if the remote access is frequent, intensive, or malicious. This could affect the performance or functionality of the authentication system, and prevent or delay the legitimate users or entities from accessing the system or network resources or services. For example, an attacker could www.certifiedumps.com

43. Page 43 Questions & Answers PDF rather the factors that could improve or protect the authentication system. Encryption of audit logs is a technique that involves using a cryptographic algorithm and a key to transform the audit logs into an unreadable or unintelligible format, that can only be reversed or decrypted by authorized parties. Encryption of audit logs can enhance the security and confidentiality of the audit logs by preventing unauthorized access or disclosure of the sensitive information in the audit logs. However, encryption of audit logs could not cause a DoS against an authentication system, because it does not affect the availability or performance of the authentication system, but rather the integrity or privacy of the audit logs. No archiving of audit logs is a practice that involves not storing or transferring the audit logs to a separate or external storage device or location, such as a tape, disk, or cloud. No archiving of audit logs can reduce the security and availability of the audit logs by increasing the risk of loss or damage of the audit logs, and limiting the access or retrieval of the audit logs. However, no archiving of audit logs could not cause a DoS against an authentication system, because it does not affect the availability or performance of the authentication system, but rather the availability or preservation of the audit logs. Hashing of audit logs is a technique that involves using a hash function, such as MD5 or SHA, to generate a fixed-length and unique value, called a hash or a digest, that represents the audit logs. Hashing of audit logs can improve the security and integrity of the audit logs by verifying the authenticity or consistency of the audit logs, and detecting any modification or tampering of the audit logs. However, hashing of audit logs could not cause a DoS against an authentication system, because it does not affect the availability or performance of the authentication system, but rather the integrity or verification of the audit logs. Topic 7, Security Operations Question: 35 An organization is found lacking the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit. What would be the MOST probable cause? A. Absence of a Business Intelligence (BI) solution B. Inadequate cost modeling C. Improper deployment of the Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA) D. Insufficient Service Level Agreement (SLA) Answer: D Explanation: Insufficient Service Level Agreement (SLA) would be the most probable cause for an organization to lack the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit. A Web hosting solution is a service that provides the infrastructure, resources, and tools for www.certifiedumps.com

44. Page 44 Questions & Answers PDF hosting and maintaining a website or a web application on the internet. A Web hosting solution can offer various benefits, such as: Improving the availability and accessibility of the website or web application by ensuring that it is online and reachable at all times Enhancing the performance and scalability of the website or web application by optimizing the speed, load, and capacity of the web server Increasing the security and reliability of the website or web application by providing the backup, recovery, and protection of the web data and content Reducing the cost and complexity of the website or web application by outsourcing the web hosting and management to a third-party provider A Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a contract or an agreement that defines the expectations, responsibilities, and obligations of the parties involved in a service, such as the service provider and the service consumer. An SLA can include various components, such as: Service description: a detailed explanation of the scope, purpose, and features of the service Service level objectives: a set of measurable and quantifiable goals or targets for the service quality, performance, and availability Service level indicators: a set of metrics or parameters that are used to monitor and evaluate the service level objectives Service level reporting: a process that involves collecting, analyzing, and communicating the service level indicators and objectives Service level penalties: a set of consequences or actions that are applied when the service level objectives are not met or violated Insufficient SLA would be the most probable cause for an organization to lack the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit, because it could mean that the SLA does not include or specify the appropriate service level indicators or objectives for the Web hosting solution, or that the SLA does not provide or enforce the adequate service level reporting or penalties for the Web hosting solution. This could affect the ability of the organization to measure and assess the Web hosting solution quality, performance, and availability, and to identify and address any issues or risks in the Web hosting solution. The other options are not the most probable causes for an organization to lack the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit, but rather the factors that could affect or improve the Web hosting solution in other ways. Absence of a Business Intelligence (BI) solution is a factor that could affect the ability of the organization to analyze and utilize the data and information from the Web hosting solution, such as the web traffic, behavior, or www.certifiedumps.com

45. Page 45 Questions & Answers PDF conversion. A BI solution is a system that involves the collection, integration, processing, and presentation of the data and information from various sources, such as the Web hosting solution, to support the decision making and planning of the organization. However, absence of a BI solution is not the most probable cause for an organization to lack the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit, because it does not affect the definition or specification of the performance indicators for the Web hosting solution, but rather the analysis or usage of the performance indicators for the Web hosting solution. Inadequate cost modeling is a factor that could affect the ability of the organization to estimate and optimize the cost and value of the Web hosting solution, such as the web hosting fees, maintenance costs, or return on investment. A cost model is a tool or a method that helps the organization to calculate and compare the cost and value of the Web hosting solution, and to identify and implement the best or most efficient Web hosting solution. However, inadequate cost modeling is not the most probable cause for an organization to lack the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit, because it does not affect the definition or specification of the performance indicators for the Web hosting solution, but rather the estimation or optimization of the cost and value of the Web hosting solution. Improper deployment of the Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA) is a factor that could affect the ability of the organization to design and develop the Web hosting solution, such as the web services, components, or interfaces. A SOA is a software architecture that involves the modularization, standardization, and integration of the software components or services that provide the functionality or logic of the Web hosting solution. A SOA can offer various benefits, such as: Improving the flexibility and scalability of the Web hosting solution by allowing the addition, modification, or removal of the software components or services without affecting the whole Web hosting solution Enhancing the interoperability and compatibility of the Web hosting solution by enabling the communication and interaction of the software components or services across different platforms and technologies Increasing the reusability and maintainability of the Web hosting solution by reducing the duplication and complexity of the software components or services However, improper deployment of the SOA is not the most probable cause for an organization to lack the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit, because it does not affect the definition or specification of the performance indicators for the Web hosting solution, but rather the design or development of the Web hosting solution. Question: 36 Which of the following types of business continuity tests includes assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations? www.certifiedumps.com

46. Page 46 Questions & Answers PDF A. Walkthrough B. Simulation C. Parallel D. White box Answer: B Explanation: Simulation is the type of business continuity test that includes assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations. Business continuity is the ability of an organization to maintain or resume its critical functions and operations in the event of a disruption or disaster. Business continuity testing is the process of evaluating and validating the effectiveness and readiness of the business continuity plan (BCP) and the disaster recovery plan (DRP) through various methods and scenarios. Business continuity testing can provide several benefits, such as: Improving the confidence and competence of the organization and its staff in handling a disruption or disaster Enhancing the performance and efficiency of the organization and its systems in recovering from a disruption or disaster Increasing the compliance and alignment of the organization and its plans with the internal or external requirements and standards Facilitating the monitoring and improvement of the organization and its plans by identifying and addressing any gaps, issues, or risks There are different types of business continuity tests, depending on the scope, purpose, and complexity of the test. Some of the common types are: Walkthrough: a type of business continuity test that involves reviewing and discussing the BCP and DRP with the relevant stakeholders, such as the business continuity team, the management, and the staff. A walkthrough can provide a basic and qualitative assessment of the BCP and DRP, and can help to familiarize and educate the stakeholders with the plans and their roles and responsibilities. Simulation: a type of business continuity test that involves performing and practicing the BCP and DRP with the relevant stakeholders, using simulated or hypothetical scenarios, such as a fire drill, a power outage, or a cyberattack. A simulation can provide a realistic and quantitative assessment of the BCP and DRP, and can help to test and train the stakeholders with the plans and their actions and reactions. Parallel: a type of business continuity test that involves activating and operating the alternate site or system, while maintaining the normal operations at the primary site or system. A parallel test can www.certifiedumps.com

47. Page 47 Questions & Answers PDF provide a comprehensive and comparative assessment of the BCP and DRP, and can help to verify and validate the functionality and compatibility of the alternate site or system. Full interruption: a type of business continuity test that involves shutting down and transferring the normal operations from the primary site or system to the alternate site or system. A full interruption test can provide a conclusive and definitive assessment of the BCP and DRP, and can help to evaluate and measure the impact and effectiveness of the plans. Simulation is the type of business continuity test that includes assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations, because it can simulate various types of risks, such as natural, human, or technical, and assess how the organization and its systems can cope and recover from them, without actually causing any harm or disruption to the live operations. Simulation can also help to identify and mitigate any potential risks that might affect the live operations, and to improve the resilience and preparedness of the organization and its systems. The other options are not the types of business continuity tests that include assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations, but rather types that have other objectives or effects. Walkthrough is a type of business continuity test that does not include assessment of resilience to internal and external risks, but rather a review and discussion of the BCP and DRP, without any actual testing or practice. Parallel is a type of business continuity test that does not endanger live operations, but rather maintains them, while activating and operating the alternate site or system. Full interruption is a type of business continuity test that does endanger live operations, by shutting them down and transferring them to the alternate site or system. Question: 37 What is the PRIMARY reason for implementing change management? A. Certify and approve releases to the environment B. Provide version rollbacks for system changes C. Ensure that all applications are approved D. Ensure accountability for changes to the environment Answer: D Explanation: Ensuring accountability for changes to the environment is the primary reason for implementing change management. Change management is a process that ensures that any changes to the system or network environment, such as the hardware, software, configuration, or documentation, are planned, approved, implemented, and documented in a controlled and consistent manner. Change www.certifiedumps.com

48. Page 48 Questions & Answers PDF management can provide several benefits, such as: Improving the security and reliability of the system or network environment by preventing or reducing the errors, conflicts, or disruptions that might occur due to the changes Enhancing the performance and efficiency of the system or network environment by optimizing the resources and functions Increasing the compliance and alignment of the system or network environment with the internal or external requirements and standards Facilitating the monitoring and improvement of the system or network environment by tracking and logging the changes and their outcomes Ensuring accountability for changes to the environment is the primary reason for implementing change management, because it can ensure that the changes are authorized, justified, and traceable, and that the parties involved in the changes are responsible and accountable for their actions and results. Accountability can also help to deter or detect any unauthorized or malicious changes that might compromise the system or network environment. The other options are not the primary reasons for implementing change management, but rather secondary or specific reasons for different aspects or phases of change management. Certifying and approving releases to the environment is a reason for implementing change management, but it is more relevant for the approval phase of change management, which is the phase that involves reviewing and validating the changes and their impacts, and granting or denying the permission to proceed with the changes. Providing version rollbacks for system changes is a reason for implementing change management, but it is more relevant for the implementation phase of change management, which is the phase that involves executing and monitoring the changes and their effects, and providing the backup and recovery options for the changes. Ensuring that all applications are approved is a reason for implementing change management, but it is more relevant for the application changes, which are the changes that affect the software components or services that provide the functionality or logic of the system or network environment. Question: 38 Which of the following is a PRIMARY advantage of using a third-party identity service? A. Consolidation of multiple providers B. Directory synchronization C. Web based logon D. Automated account management www.certifiedumps.com

49. Page 49 Questions & Answers PDF Answer: D Explanation: Consolidation of multiple providers is the primary advantage of using a third-party identity service. A third-party identity service is a service that provides identity and access management (IAM) functions, such as authentication, authorization, and federation, for multiple applications or systems, using a single identity provider (IdP). A third-party identity service can offer various benefits, such as: Improving the user experience and convenience by allowing the users to access multiple applications or systems with a single sign-on (SSO) or a federated identity Enhancing the security and compliance by applying the consistent and standardized IAM policies and controls across multiple applications or systems Increasing the scalability and flexibility by enabling the integration and interoperability of multiple applications or systems with different platforms and technologies Reducing the cost and complexity by outsourcing the IAM functions to a third-party provider, and avoiding the duplication and maintenance of multiple IAM systems Consolidation of multiple providers is the primary advantage of using a third-party identity service, because it can simplify and streamline the IAM architecture and processes, by reducing the number of IdPs and IAM systems that are involved in managing the identities and access for multiple applications or systems. Consolidation of multiple providers can also help to avoid the issues or risks that might arise from having multiple IdPs and IAM systems, such as the inconsistency, redundancy, or conflict of the IAM policies and controls, or the inefficiency, vulnerability, or disruption of the IAM functions. The other options are not the primary advantages of using a third-party identity service, but rather secondary or specific advantages for different aspects or scenarios of using a third-party identity service. Directory synchronization is an advantage of using a third-party identity service, Question: 39 but it is more relevant for the scenario where the organization has an existing directory service, such as LDAP or Active Directory, that stores and manages the user accounts and attributes, and wants to synchronize them with the third party identity service to enable the SSO or federation for www.certifiedumps.com

50. Page 50 Questions & Answers PDF With what frequency should monitoring of a control occur when implementing Information Security Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) solutions? A. Continuously without exception for all security controls B. Before and after each change of the control C. At a rate concurrent with the volatility of the security control D. Only during system implementation and decommissioning Answer: C Explanation: Monitoring of a control should occur at a rate concurrent with the volatility of the security control when implementing Information Security Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) solutions. ISCM is a process that involves maintaining the ongoing awareness of the security status, events, and activities of a system or network, by collecting, analyzing, and reporting the security data and information, using various methods and tools. ISCM can provide several benefits, such as: Improving the security and risk management of the system or network by identifying and addressing the security weaknesses and gaps Enhancing the security and decision making of the system or network by providing the evidence and information for the security analysis, evaluation, and reporting Increasing the security and improvement of the system or network by providing the feedback and input for the security response, remediation, and optimization Facilitating the compliance and alignment of the system or network with the internal or external requirements and standards A security control is a measure or mechanism that is implemented to protect the system or network from the security threats or risks, by preventing, detecting, or correcting the security incidents or impacts. A security control can have various types, such as administrative, technical, or physical, and various attributes, such as preventive, detective, or corrective. A security control can also have different levels of volatility, which is the degree or frequency of change or variation of the security control, due to various factors, such as the security requirements, the threat landscape, or the system or network environment. Monitoring of a control should occur at a rate concurrent www.certifiedumps.com with the volatility of the security control