200 items
This presentation is the property of its rightful owner.
Sponsored Links
1 / 201

200 ITEMS  PowerPoint PPT Presentation


  • 108 Views
  • Uploaded on
  • Presentation posted in: General

200 ITEMS . 1.. Which of the following statements is/are true? During anaerobic, metabolism energy for muscle contraction is produced During aerobic metabolism, energy for muscle contraction is produced The energy for muscle contraction is used for production of ATP

Download Presentation

200 ITEMS 

An Image/Link below is provided (as is) to download presentation

Download Policy: Content on the Website is provided to you AS IS for your information and personal use and may not be sold / licensed / shared on other websites without getting consent from its author.While downloading, if for some reason you are not able to download a presentation, the publisher may have deleted the file from their server.


- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - E N D - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -

Presentation Transcript


200 items

200 ITEMS 


200 items

1.. Which of the following statements is/are true?

  • During anaerobic, metabolism energy for muscle contraction is produced

  • During aerobic metabolism, energy for muscle contraction is produced

  • The energy for muscle contraction is used for production of ATP

  • If only I and III are correct

  • If all are correct

  • If only I and II are correct

  • If only III is correct

  • If all are incorrect


  • 200 items

    2. When there is equal passage of ions across the membrane, the polarity would be:

    • Toward zero point

    • Depolarization

    • Repolarization

    • Resting membrane potential

    • Hyperpolarization


    200 items

    3. Skeletal muscles store energy just enough ATP to provide chemical energy for:

    • Minimum of five strong muscle contractions

    • At least 1 minute continuous contractions

    • At least 30 seconds continuous contractions

    • At most three strong muscle contractions

    • At least 15 seconds continuous contractions


    200 items

    4. Resting membrane potential:

    • 1 Na+ : 3 K +

    • 2 Na+ : 3 K +

    • 3 Na+ : 2 K+

    • 2 Na+ : 3 K+


    200 items

    5. Which of the following is true of Sodium/Potassium/ATPase pump?

    • All of these

    • It is an example of ionic channel

    • It pumps sodium out and potassium in

    • It is an example of facilitated diffusion

    • It is an example of facilitated osmosis


    200 items

    6. This hormone inhibits secretion of insulin and glucagon and slows down the absorption of nutrients from the gastrointestinal tract:

    • Cortisol

    • Somatostatin

    • Somatotropin

    • Inhibin

    • Mineralocorticoid


    200 items

    7. The ability of the stomach to accommodate food and fluid without a significant increase in pressure is known as:

    • Repetitive relaxation\perceptive relaxation

    • Retropulsion

    • Tone

    • Sieving function


    200 items

    8. Type II muscle fibers:

    • Fatigue resistant

    • Fast twitch muscle fibers

    • High capillary density

    • Low capillary density

    • Fatigues easily

      • I, II, III

      • III, IV and V

      • I,II and IV

      • I and II

      • II and III


    200 items

    9. It contains mitochondria, fat and lipoprotein droplets:

    • Sarcosomes

    • Sarcolemma

    • Sacoplasm

    • Muscle fiber

    • Synctial cell


    200 items

    10. Lower body temperature in the elderly are usually associated with:

    • Decrease in physical activity

    • Decrease in subcutaneous tissue mass

    • Lower metabolic rate

    • All of these

    • Inadequate diet


    200 items

    11. This substance/hormone cause inhibition of the conversion of Angiotensin II from Angiotension I:a.      Reninb.      Bradykininc.      Ace inhibitorsd.      Aldosterone


    200 items

    12. Hyposecretion of PTH can lead to Hypocalcemia which is/are characterized by the following signs and symptoms EXCEPT:a.      Tetanyb.      Twitchingc.      Arrythmiad.      Hypotensione.      Pathologic fractures


    200 items

    13. Facilitated diffusion may be described by the ff. Statements, EXCEPT:

    • Carrier proteins are involved in the transport of the substance

    • The rate of diffusion is faster than simple diffusion

    • The direction of diffusion is driven by electrical or concentration gradients

    • ATP cleavage is required

    • None of these


    200 items

    14. The classic type I muscle fibers are:

    • High in oxidative enzymes and low in myosin ATPase activity

    • High in glycolytic enzymes and myosin ATPase

    • High in glycolytic enzymes and myosin ATPase and slow twitch muscle fibers

    • High in oxidative enzymes and low in myosin ATPaseacitivity and slow twitch muscle fibers

    • Slow twitch muscle fibers


    200 items

    15. A patient’s breathing is characterized by cycles of gradual increase in rate and depth of respiration with apnea in between.

    • Biot’s breathing

    • Cheyne-Stokes breathing

    • Ataxic breathing

    • Kussmaul’s breathing

    • Eupnea


    200 items

    16. The Sinuatrial Node is considered as the pacemaker of the heart because:

    • It is far from the ventricles

    • It has the highest rate of automaticity

    • It has the fastest conduction velocity

    • It is located near the entry of the right atrium


    200 items

    17. What is the proper attitude about smoking to be conveyed to the patient with obstructive lung disease?

    a. The patient should be forced to stop smoking and should be warned that death might occur if he starts smoking again

    b. The patient should be encouraged to stop smoking and should be presented appropriate educational material

    c. The lung disease is already present and the damage is already done. It makes no difference whether the patient continues to smoke or decides to quit.

    d. Since there is no definite evidence liking smoking and lung disease, smoking need not even be mentioned


    200 items

    18. Pleural effusion is caused by which of the following?

    • Internal bronchial obstruction

    • Low tidal volume

    • Decrease in osmotic pressure

      • Only III is correct

      • Only I is correct

      • All are correct

      • None are correct

      • I and II are correct


    200 items

    19. A 7 y/o patient diagnosed with cystic fibrosis was referred for PT treatment. Upon exercising the patient, you check that there is decreased breath sounds and the patient currently experiences difficulty in breathing. The PT should:

    a. Call emergency assistance

    b. Stop PT treatment and check vital signs

    c. Continue with the treatment

    d. Lower the resistance of the exercise


    200 items

    20. The following are signs and symptoms of an 11 y/o child with cystic fibrosis in the chronic stage EXCEPT:

    • Digital Clubbing

    • Thick, Tenacious Bronchial Secretions

    • Cyanosis Of The Lips

    • Dyspnea


    200 items

    21. Cushing`s syndrome is characterized by the following EXCEPT:a.      Buffallo humpb.      Moon fasciec.      Spindling of the arms and legsd.      Striae on the abdomene.      Edema of the face


    200 items

    22. Which of the following is not an appropriate reason to terminate a maximum exercise tolerance test for a patient with pulmonary dysfunction?

    • ECG monitoring reveals diagnostic ischemia

    • Patient states he is maximally short of breath

    • Patient reaches age predicted maximal heart rate

    • PaO2 decreases to 20mmHg


    200 items

    23. A client is positioned on a treatment table in prone with two pillows under her hips. This position most likely would be used to perform postural drainage techniques to the:

    a. anterior basal segment of the lower lobes

    b. lateral basal segment of the lower lobes

    c. right middle lobe

    d. superior segment of the lower lobes


    200 items

    24. A patient with COPD is sitting on a bedside chair. The apices of the lungs in this position compared with other areas of the lungs in this position would demonstrate:

    • the highest changes in ventilation during the respiratory cycle

    • increased volume of air at resting and expiratory pressure (REEP)

    • increased perfusion

    • the lowest oxygenation and highest CO2 in blood exiting this zone


    200 items

    25. Type of hormone transfer in which substances are conveyed over short distances by diffusion through the interstitial space, to act on neighboring cells for regulation:

    • Paracrine

    • Endocrine

    • Autocrine

    • Exocrine


    200 items

    26. Pulmonary tuberculosis is an infection caused by an airborne mycobacterium tuberculosis. Which of the following statements holds true about tuberculosis?

    • All of these

    • 2 weeks on appropriate anti-tuberculine drugs renders the host non-infectious

    • Incubation period is 5 – 12 weeks

    • Incubation period is 5 – 12 weeks and primary disease lasts approximately 2 weeks to 4 months

    • Primary disease last approximately 2 weeks to 4 months


    200 items

    27. The following pituitary hormones are under tonic stimulation by the hypothalamus, EXCEPT:

    • ACTH

    • Prolactin

    • TSH

    • Growth hormone


    200 items

    28. A therapist monitors a client’s respiration rate during exercise. Which of the following would be considered a normal response?

    • The respiration rate declines during exercise before the intensity of exercise declines

    • The respiration rate does not increase during exercise

    • The rhythm of the respiration pattern becomes irregular during exercise

    • The respiration rate decreases as the intensity of the exercise plateaus


    200 items

    29. If the ventricular cell is stimulated during the spike of the action potential, it would fall during the:

    • Relative refractory period

    • Supernormal phase

    • Absolute refractory period

    • Resting phase

    • Atrioventricular mode


    200 items

    30. In asthma, pertinent physical findings during exacerbation would include the following except:

    • Hemoptysis

    • Wheezing,possible crackles

    • Cyanosis

    • Tachycardia

    • Dyspnea


    200 items

    32. Which of the following is the most appropriate standard positioning for draining the posterior basal segment of the lung?

    • Patient lying supine with an 18-inch elevation of the foot of the bed

    • Patient lying on his side with a 6-inch elevation of the foot of the bed

    • Patient lying prone with an 18-inch elevation of the foot of the bed

    • Patient lying on his side with an 18-inch elevation of the foot of the bed

    • Patient lying prone with the lower extremities lowered by 6 inches


    200 items

    32. The whole process by which depolarization of the muscle fiber initiates muscle contraction is called excitation – contraction coupling. During this process, the following events occur except:

    • Calcium initiates muscle contraction

    • The action potential is transmitted to all the muscle fibrils via the tubular system

    • The action potential in the muscle triggers the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

    • Norepinephrine is released into the myoneural junction


    200 items

    33. the PT program for a patient with Emphysema should incorporate purse lip expiration since it helps to:

    • decrease intrabronchial pressure

    • increase intrabronchial pressure

    • increase abdominal pressure

    • increase intrathoracic pressure


    200 items

    34. The most important stimulus which will result in an increase ventilation is:

    • decrease arterial pO2

    • decrease arterial pCO2

    • increase arterial pCO2

    • herring – Breuer reflex

    • all of these


    200 items

    35. Corpulomale is exhibited in what clinical condition?

    • CRPD

    • Pulmonary hypertension

    • Pulmonary embolism

    • Pulmonary fibrosis


    200 items

    36. A cardiac client undergoes a low-level symptom limited exercise tyreadmill test that begins at 1.5 METS and progresses to 4 METS. Which of the following activities would require an energy expenditure of approximately 4 METS?

    • Sitting quietly at rest

    • Level walking at 1 mph

    • Level walking at 3 mph

    • Level walking at 5 mph


    200 items

    37. Body temperature is affected by:

    • Time of day

    • Exercise

    • Age

    • All of these

    • Emotions


    200 items

    38. The proper sequence of events that occur in coughing after inspiration is:

    • Abdominal contraction, glottis close, tightening of vocal cords, glottis open, air expiration

    • Glottis close, abdominal contraction, air expiration, glottis open

    • Both

    • None of these


    200 items

    39. Thjs conditions are contraindicated for postural drainage in any position:

    • Head trauma

    • Pharyngectomy

    • Aortic stenosis

    • All of these

    • None of these


    200 items

    40. Normal value of PR in adults:

    • 60-70 bpm

    • 60-90 bpm

    • 30-60 bpm

    • 60-150 bpm


    200 items

    • 41. You are examining your new patient who was diagnosed to have COPD. You will not be surprised to see decreased:

    • RV

    • FRC

    • VC

    • TLC


    200 items

    42. The following set of PFTs demonstrate an FVC of 3.2, an FEV1 of 2.6, and an FEV1 / FVC ratio of 81.25%. Which of the following Caucasian female patients would these PFTs most likely represent?

    • 5’2” healthy 68 year-old with a s/p total knee replacement

    • 5’4” 28 year-old in a mild exacerbation of her asthma

    • 5’2” healthy 31 year old with a casted tibia/ fibula fracture

    • 4’ 8” 10 year-old with cystic fibrosis


    200 items

    43. All are appropriate instructions that should be given to a patient who experiences frequent sudden attack of shortness of breath, EXCEPT:

    a. Lean forward while in sitting position

    b. Flex head and trunk while standing

    c. Pursed-lip breathing while slightly bending the trunk backward in sitting

    d. Perform daily activities through pacing

    e. None of these


    200 items

    44. This is the primary rhythm generator for respiration:

    • Ventral respiratory group of neurons

    • Pneumotaxic center

    • Central node of neurons

    • Apneustic neuron

    • Dorsal respiratory group of neuron


    200 items

    45. Atrial depolarization represents:

    • P wave

    • T wave

    • QRS complex

    • ST segment


    200 items

    46. Rapid exchange of positive and negative ions due to cell’s increase in permeability is termed:

    • Action potential

    • Membrane potential

    • Depolarization

    • Repolarization


    200 items

    47. Which of the following is a branch of the Left coronary artery?

    • Right marginal artery

    • AV nodal

    • Posterior interventricular artery

    • Circumflex artery


    200 items

    48. In the cardiac cycle, early systole is characterized as:

    • phase wherein there is open AV valves

    • phase wherein all valves are closed

    • phase of ventricular filling

    • Phase wherein there is closure of the SL Valves


    200 items

    49. You were asked to treat a patient at the pulmonary ward. You have seen that the management for this patient includes pulmonary percussion. As a physical therapist, you would know that this technique is contraindicated for patients with the following conditions, EXCEPT:

    • Bronchiectasis

    • Interstitial fibrosis

    • Pulmonary Tuberculosis

    • Lobar Pneumonia


    200 items

    50. Presence of ADH hormone will increase the permeability of water and concentration of filtrate in the following segment/s EXCEPT:a.      Proximal Tubuleb.      Distal tubulec.      Collecting tubuled.      Collecting ductse.      None of the above


    200 items

    51. Crystalloids and colloids solution in water:

    • Blood platelets

    • White blood cells

    • Plasma

    • Macrophages

    • Phagocytes


    200 items

    52. Which of the following helps in venous return during exercise?

    • Muscle contraction

    • Gravitational forces

    • Venoconstriction

    • Interstitial motility

      • None of these

      • I and II are correct

      • All are correct

      • II and IV are correct

      • Only IV is correct


    200 items

    53. Stimulation of mass movement after ingestion of the normal meal is called:

    • Iliac break

    • Gastrocolic reflex

    • Enterogastric reflex

    • Gastrosphinteric

    • Rectosphinteric


    200 items

    54. This small intestine cells secrete lysosomes:

    • Goblet cells

    • Absorptive cells

    • Mucosa cells

    • Paneth cells

    • T cells

  • III and IV

  • III only

  • I,II

  • Only IV

  • NOTA


  • 200 items

    55. A patient with DM is exercising late in the late afternoon complains of irritability, tremors, headache and blurred vision. The presenting signs and symptoms indicates:a.      Heat strokeb.      Heat exhaustionc.      Hypoglycemiad.      Hyperglycemia


    200 items

    56. Facilitated diffusion may be described by the ff. Statements, EXCEPT:

    • Carrier proteins are involved in the transport of the substance

    • The rate of diffusion is faster than simple diffusion

    • The direction of diffusion is driven by electrical or concentration gradients

    • ATP cleavage is required

    • None of these


    200 items

    57. Vital capacity is the summation of what volumes?

    • Inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, functional residual capacity

    • Inspiratory reserve volume, functional residual capacity, total lung capacity

    • Inspiratory reserve volume, TV, ERV

    • IRV, TV, ERV, RV


    200 items

    58. Filling of ventricles maximally occurs during:

    • first 1/3 of diastole

    • rapid ejection period

    • atrial systole

    • isovolumetric contraction period


    200 items

    59. If the cardiac output is 7.2 L/min and the heart rate is 80 bpm, then the stroke volume is:

    • 70 ml

    • 80 ml

    • 90 ml

    • 100 ml


    200 items

    60. A patient has a history of DM, HTN and chronic heart failure. The failure. The patient’s venous filling time is less than 15 seconds, Homan’s sign is negative and rubor dependency test is not slowed. These findings support which of the following diagnoses?

    • Lymphedema

    • Arterial insufficiency

    • Intermittent claudication

    • Chronic venous insufficiency


    200 items

    61. The following is/are function of the renal system, EXCEPT:

    • Glucose synthesis

    • Filtration of plasma

    • Regulation of arterial pressure

    • None of the above

    • All of these


    200 items

    62. Which of the following is a vasodilator?

    • H+

    • H-

    • Atrialnatriuretic peptide

    • Angiotensin II


    200 items

    63. Type I muscle fibers:

    • Fatigue resistant

    • Slow – twitch muscle fibers

    • High capillary density

    • Low capillary density

    • Fatigues easily

      • I, II and III

      • III, IV and V

      • I, II and IV

      • I and II

      • II and III


    200 items

    64. The gateway to pain is opened by:

    • Intense stimulation of large diameter fibers

    • None of these

    • Mild stimulation of small diameter fibers

    • Mild stimulation of large diameter fibers

    • Intense stimulation of small diameter


    200 items

    65. The kidneys are paired, bean shaped structures located outside the peritoneal cavity and at the level of :a.      T12 to L2b.      L1 to L2c.      L2 to L3d.      L3 to L4


    200 items

    66.  The nephrons consist of tubular segments but have slight difference depending on the location. The following statement is/are true about the nephrons:

    I.      Cortical nephrons have glomeruli that are located in the outer cortexII.     Juxtamedullarynephrons lie deep in the medullaIII.    The vascular structures  supplying the juxtamedullarynephrons: long efferent arterioles extending to the peritubular capillariesIV.     Cortical nephrons have longer loop of Henlea.      I, and IIIb.      II and IVc.      I and IId.      II and IIIe.      III and IV


    200 items

    67. The indented medial side of the kidney where the renal artery, and vein, lymphatics, nerve supply and ureter passes through going to the renal bladder.a.      Medullab.      Renal Hilumc.      Major calyxd.      Renal Pelvis


    200 items

    68. The tubular segment/s that is/are impermeable to water depending on presence or absence of  ADH EXCEPT:a.      Ascending Loop of Henleb.      Distal  tubulec.      Collecting tubuled.      Collecting ductse.      None of the above


    200 items

    69. The work performed by the left ventricle is substantially greater than that performed by the right ventricle, because in the left ventricle:

    • The contraction is slower

    • The wall is thicker

    • The afterload is greater

    • The stroke volume is greater

    • The preload is greater


    200 items

    70. What change in the ECG would be most predictive of myocardial ischemia?

    • ST segment elevation of < 2.0 mm

    • ST segment depression of < 2.0 mm

    • ST segment elevation of > 2.0 mm

    • ST segment depression of > 2.0 mm

    • ST segment doesn’t elevate nor depress


    200 items

    71. Which of the following characterizes right sided heart failure?

    • Pulmonary edema

    • Edematous ankle

    • Bipedal edema

    • A and B

    • B and C


    200 items

    72. The 2nd heart sound is caused by the closure of what structures?

    • Aortic and Mitral valves

    • Aortic and Pulmonic valves

    • Mitral and Tricuspid valves

    • Tricuspid and Pulmonic valves


    200 items

    73. The oxidative system:

    • Provides the greatest amount of energy

    • Provides energy in endurance activities

    • All of these

    • Is sometimes called the aerobic system and it provides energy in endurance activities

    • Is sometimes called the aerobic system


    200 items

    74. A patient who suffered myocardial infarction was referred for Cardiac Rehabilitation. Upon reading the medical chart, you noticed that the patient is under medications that include beta- blockers. In exercising the patient, what is the best method to use in determining exercise tolerance?

    • RPE

    • Blood pressure

    • Respiraoty rate

    • Age related maximum heart rate


    200 items

    75. Inhibits the synthesis of the angiotensin II in the blood stream and various tissue and decreases angiotensin II mediated vasoconstriction and vascular structural changes:

    • Alpha- adrenergic blockers

    • Angiotensin – converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

    • Diuretics

    • Calcium channel blockers


    200 items

    76. A patient with DM is exercising late in the late afternoon complains of irritability, tremors, headache and blurred vision. The presenting signs and symptoms indicates:a.      Heat strokeb.      Heat exhaustionc.      Hypoglycemiad.      Hyperglycemia


    200 items

    77. An idiopathic inflammatory condition of the aorta and branches, also called “Pulselessness Disease”:

    • Buerger’s

    • Takayasu’s

    • Raynaud’s

    • Monokaberg’s


    200 items

    78. Following a post-myocardial infarction, a patient is a newly admitted to Phase 3 cardiac rehabilitation program. During the initial exercise session his ECG responses are continuously monitored via radio telemetry. The therapist notices 3 PVCs occurring in a run with no P wave. The MOST appropriate action to take is:

    • Continue exercise session but monitor closely

    • Stop the exercise and notify the physician immediately

    • Have the patient sit down and rest for a few minutes before resuming exercise

    • Modify the exercise prescription by decreasing the intensity


    200 items

    79. This hormone inhibits Interleukin-6 hat cause  an increase in bone resorption greater than bone formation that later cause osteoporosis:a.      Testosteroneb.      Progesteronec.      Estrogend.      Prolactin


    200 items

    80. Which of the following is/are true METS?

    • All of these

    • None of these

    • Use to describe energy requirements

    • One MET is arbitrarily equal to the resting oxygen consumptions of an individual

    • The average value at rest is 3.5 ml of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute


    200 items

    81. Pulse abnormality seen in Left sided heart failure:

    • Alternans

    • Bisfriens

    • Paradoxical

    • thready


    200 items

    82. Metabolic equivalent of sitting at ease:

    • 1.2 – 1.6

    • 1

    • 1.7 – 3

    • 3 – 6


    200 items

    83. A physical therapist examines a four month old infant. During mat activities the infant suddenly becomes unconscious. The MOST appropriate location to check the infant’s pulse is the:

    • Radial artery

    • Brachial artery

    • Popliteal artery

    • Carotid artery


    200 items

    84. The resting heart rate (RHR) after a period of bed rest increase by approximately:

    • ½ per minute each day for the first 1- 2 weeks

    • 7.5 beats per minute for the first 3 – 4 weeks

    • Both

    • None


    200 items

    85. You were asked to treat a patient at the pulmonary ward. You have seen that the management for this patient includes pulmonary percussion. As a physical therapist, you would know that this technique is contraindicated for patients with the following conditions except:

    • Bronchiectasis

    • Interstitial fibrosis

    • Pulomonary tuberculosis

    • Lobar oneumonia

    • Hypexemia


    200 items

    86. A 25 y.o. member of the national cycling team with a resting heart rate of 65 bpm asks you what target heart rate he should maintain during his endurance4 program. Using Karvonen’s formula, the target heart rate you would recommend is:

    • 195 bpm

    • 156 bpm

    • 135 bpm

    • 143 bpm


    200 items

    87. Crackles are abnormal breath sounds which may be heard upon chest auscultation. During early inspiration, crackles may indicate:

    • Severe airway obstruction

    • Narrowing of airway

    • Fibrosis

    • All of these

    • Excessive secretion and flaccid airways


    200 items

    88. This autoimmune condition is characterized by a peculiar substance that mimics the thyroid stimulating hormone causing enlargement of the thyroid gland and the characteristic exopthalmos:

    a.      Addison`s diseaseb.      Cushing`s syndromec.      Goiterd.      Grave`s diseasee.      Cretinism


    200 items

    89. A physician orders an electrocardiogram for a patient diagnosed with congestive heart failure (CHF). The medical record indicates the patient is currently taking Digitalis. What effect would you expect Digitalis to have on patient’s ECG?

    • Lengthened ventricular activation time

    • Increased refractory period of AV node

    • Lengthened QT interval

    • Elevated ST segment


    200 items

    90. The kidneys function is to remove waste products of metabolism, the following is/are the waste products that are being removed in the renal system via tubular excretion EXCEPT:a.      Creatinineb.      Uric acidc.      Bilirubind.      Ureae.      None of the above


    200 items

    91. Target heart rate is equal to:

    • (60-80% [maximum HR – resting HR] ) – resting HR

    • (60-80% [resting HR – maximum HR] ) – resting HR

    • Resting HR + (60-80% [maximum HR – resting HR] )

    • Resting HR – (60-80% [maximum HR – resting HR] )

    • Maximum HR + (60-80% [maximum HR – resting HR] )


    200 items

    92. A referring physician entrusts a 70 year-old male with lung cancer to the physical therapist’s care. The order calls for postural drainage and percussion of the affected Bronchopulmonary segments. What will be the therapist’s BEST response?

    a. Proceed with the treatment emphasizing percussion on the affected areas

    b. Call the physician and withhold the order

    c. Do not perform the percussion but do postural drainage

    d. Place the patient in a comfortable position and do vigorous percussion but not postural drainage


    200 items

    93. Responsible for the rate of respiration:

    • medulla oblongata

    • pons

    • brainstem

    • hypothalamus


    200 items

    94. Fast twitch fibers differ from slow twitch fibers, EXCEPT:

    • Number of capillaries per mass of fibers is greater in slow twitch fibers

    • Type II organizes for endurance

    • Type II can achieve 2x the maximal power

    • Type II are 2x in diameter


    200 items

    95. The following are effects of cardiac transplantation on cardiovascular and pulmonary variables except:

    • The peak heart rate achieved during maximal exercise is markedly lower in cardiac transplant patients than in age – matched subject thereby limiting the usefulness of exercise prescription based on target heart rate

    • Peak systolic blood pressure of cardiac transplant recipient is less than that of individuals without, but diastolic blood pressure is not much different

    • At rest, cardiac recipients exhibit lower heart rate, than do individuals without cardiac transplantation due to the loss of vagal tone associated with the surgical procedure

    • Resting stroke volume of the patient following cardiac transplantation is less than that of individuals without, but diastolic blood pressure is not much different

    • Oxygen consumption at anaerobic threshold is markedly lower than that of individuals without cardiac transplant partially due to skeletal weakness


    200 items

    96. What percentages of human genes are involved in the formation and function of the nervous system?

    • 5

    • 15

    • 25

    • 40

    • 60


    200 items

    97. Filling of ventricles occurs maximally during:

    • Rapid ejection period

    • First 1/3 of diastole

    • Isovolumic contraction period

    • Vasodilation

    • Atrial systole


    200 items

    98. Side effects of Digitalis, Diuretics, and Calcium Inhibitors:

    • Nausea and vomiting

    • Increased electrolyte imbalance

    • Both

    • None of these


    200 items

    99. If you want to increase the patient’s muscle strength this sequence of exercise is prescribed:

    • Increased repetitions, increased loading

    • Decreased loading, increased repetitions

    • Increased sets, decreased loading

    • Increased loading, decreased repetitions


    200 items

    100. In the pancreas particularly in the Islets of Langerhans produces important hormones particularly glucagon which is produced by the:a.      Alpha cellsb.      Beta cellsc.      Delta cellsd.      Gamma cells


    200 items

    101. Dressing and undressing is how many METS?

    • 2.5-2.6

    • 2.3-3.3

    • 3-6

    • 1.3-2.5

    • 1.7-3.0


    200 items

    102. Hypocoagulopathy can lead to:

    • Increased heart workload

    • Hemorrhage and edema

    • Embolus formation

    • Thrombus formation

    • Increased breathing


    200 items

    103. . A physical therapist employed in an acute care hospital reviews the medical record of a patient diagnosed with congestive heart failure (CHF). The therapist would like to implement a formal exercise program, but is concerned about the patient’s exercise tolerance. Which condition is MOST responsible for the patient’s limited exercise tolerance?

    • Diminished lung volumes

    • Arterial oxygen saturation

    • Insufficient Stroke Volume during ventricular systole

    • Excessive rise in blood pressure


    200 items

    104.Sign of arterial insufficiency:

    • Foot pallor during leg elevation

    • Foot pallor during leg dangling

    • NOTA

    • AOTA


    200 items

    105. This is the best position of a patient doing diaphragmatic breathing exercises:

    • Semi Fowler’s

    • Supine

    • Sidelying

    • Upright sitting

    • Standing


    200 items

    106. On chest x-ray, you notice that there is bullae formation and loss of peripheral vascular markings. Spirometry reveals obstructive pattern unimproved with bronchodilator. What is the probable diagnosis?

    • Emphysema

    • Asthma

    • Cystic Fibrosis

    • Chronic Bronchitis


    200 items

    107. Which of the following cell membrane channels has a single pore surrounded by five protein sub-unit?

    • Aquaporins

    • Potassium channels

    • Glucose

    • GABA A channels


    200 items

    108. Anatomically, the mitral valve is located:

    • 3rd Left ICS, sternal border

    • 3rd Left CC, sternal border

    • 4th Left CC, sternal border

    • 4th Right ICC, sternal border


    200 items

    109. A physical therapist assesses the pulse rate of a patient exercising on a treadmill. The therapist notes that the rhythm of the patient is often irregular. The MOST appropriate action to ensure an accurate measurement of pulse rate is to:

    • Select a different pulse site

    • Use a different Stethoscope

    • Measure pulse rate for 60 seconds

    • Document the irregular pulse rate in the patient’s medical record


    200 items

    110. A patient has a history of DM, HTN and chronic heart failure. The failure. The patient’s venous filling time is less than 15 seconds, Homan’s sign is negative and rubor dependency test is not slowed. These findings support which of the following diagnoses?

    • Lymphedema

    • Arterial insufficiency

    • Intermittent claudication

    • Chronic venous insufficiency


    200 items

    111. All of the following would be inappropriate home physical therapy interventions for a young patient with cystic fibrosis except:

    • secretion removal techniques

    • functional activities to increase endurance 3 to 5 times per week

    • autogenic drainage for secretion removal once or twice daily

    • using the a capella device in postural drainage position one or twice daily


    200 items

    112. The work performed by the left ventricle is substantially greater than that performed by the right ventricle, because in the left ventricle:

    • The contraction is slower

    • The wall is thicker

    • The afterload is greater

    • The stroke volume is greater

    • The preload is greater


    200 items

    113. The main types of sensory receptors include the following except:

    • Chemoreceptors

    • Thermoreceptors

    • Receptors for electromagnetic radiation & pain

    • None of these

    • Mechanoreceptors


    200 items

    114. What is the best prognosticating factor to diagnose Myocardial Infarction?

    • ECG

    • CPK/ CK-MB

    • CK-MB & myoglobin

    • Troponin I

    • Troponin C


    200 items

    115. The time in which a tissue excited by means of a stimulus does not react to a second stimulus is called:

    • Accommodation

    • Chronaxie

    • Rheobase

    • Refractory period

    • Strength duration intensity


    200 items

    116. Goals of the PT program the patient with chronic obstructive airway disease include:

    a.  improving the efficiency of the breathing patterns

    b.  facilitating drainage of excessive bronchial secretions

    c.  overall physical reconditioning

    d.  reversing the pulmonary disease with specific breathing exercises


    200 items

    117.. A patient has been diagnosed with cancer has had an above right knee amputation. During gait training, the patient begins to complain of stump pain. Your immediate response should be:

    • Tell the patient that the pain is normal and she should continue treatment

    • Let the patient rest and continue the treatment after a short while

    • Remove the prosthesis and check the stump

    • Call your supervisor


    200 items

    118. Most important Phase of cardiac Rehabilitation Program:

    • Acute Phase

    • Sub-acute Phase

    • Out- patient

    • Maintenance


    200 items

    119. Which of the ff classification of drugs would have an increased effect in the heart rate and blood pressure during an exercise test?

    • Antihypertensive drugs

    • Beta blockers

    • Anti-anxiety

    • Bronchodilators

    • None of these


    200 items

    120. During treatment of your patient, hypotension syncope occurs. This is caused by:

    • The sudden decrease in peripheral vascular resistance

    • The decrease in venous return to the heart

    • The increase in venous return to the heart

    • The sudden decrease in cardiac output

    • The sudden increase in the cardiac output


    200 items

    121. . Which of the following statements describe the heart?

    • During development, the heart undergoes rotation so that its right side is carried backwards and its left side forward

    • It is about the size of a clenched fist and occupies a central position in the thoracic cavity

    • It lies behind the body of the sternum and front of the middle four thoracic vertebrae (T5, 6, 7, 8)

    • The left ventricle forms the posterior surface and occupies most of the inferior border

    • The right ventricle occupies most of the anterior surface and forms all but the extremities of the inferior border

  • II and V only

  • I, II, IV only

  • I and IV only

  • II, III V only

  • II, III and IV


  • 200 items

    122. True of myocardial infarction:

    • Decrease ST segment

    • Increase ST segment; CPK and SGOT increases

    • Increase ST segment; CPK and SGOT decrease

    • Decrease ST segment; CPK and SGOT increases


    200 items

    123. Boundaries of the auscultatory triangles are:

    • medial border of the scapula, latissimusdorsi, trapezius

    • trapezius, external oblique, rhomboid minor

    • iliac crest, medial border of the scapula, trapezius

    • rhomboid major, latissimusdorsi, external oblique


    200 items

    124.A 90 y.o. patient with chronic CHF has been non ambulatory and has resided in a nursing home for the past year. The patient was recently admitted to the hospital after an episode of dehydration. Which of the following plans for prophylactic respiratory care is MOST appropriate?

    • Turning, coughing, and deep breathing every 1 to 2 walking hours

    • Vigorous percussion and vibration 4 times/day

    • Gentle vibration with the foot of the bed elevated 1 time/day

    • Segmental postural drainage using standard positions throughout the day


    200 items

    125. What do you call the amount of air, which enters or leaves the lungs during single resting breath?

    • ERV

    • VC

    • TV

    • RV


    200 items

    126. Calcium bind with what to produce contraction:

    • Troponin

    • Calmodulin

    • Myosisn

    • Actin


    200 items

    127. A patient is developing pulmonary edema but there is no edema in the lower extremities. This would indicate a:

    • left ventricular type of heart disease

    • right ventricular type of heart disease

    • right atrial type of heart disease

    • left atrial type of heart disease


    200 items

    128. A PT attempts to quantify a patient’s endurance level by administering a maximal exercise test. What is the primary limitation of the maximal exercise test?

    • It requires participants to exercise only to the point of volitional fatigue

    • Does not typically allow a steady state HR at each work rate

    • Is not useful in diagnosing CAD

    • Requires progressive stages of increasing work intensities without rest intervals


    200 items

    129. A phase IV cardiac rehabilitation program can best be described as:

    • A program that is monitored by electrocardiogram to determine the patient’s maximal heart rate and exercise tolerance

    • A program or maintenance designed to allow the patient to continue a life-long routine of exercise and education

    • A program that allows for independent progression of exercise at home

    • A two to four month program based solely on exercise, which allows the patient to attain appropriate maximal heart rate for his/her age group


    200 items

    130. During phase 0 of the cardiac action potential, there is rapid influx of this ion

    • Sodium

    • Oxygen

    • Hydrogen

    • Potassium

    • Calcium


    200 items

    131. Your cardiac patient manifests with systolic pressure higher in upper extremities than in lower extremities; diastolic pressures are similar. ECG shows left ventricular hypertrophy and chest x-ray shows rib nothing. The probable diagnosis is:

    • Coarctation of the aorta

    • Pulmonary stenosis

    • Oatentductusarteriosus

    • Ventricular septal defect

    • Subclavian steal


    200 items

    132. Refers to how often the exercise is performed:

    • Type of exercise

    • Duration

    • Frequency

    • Intensity


    200 items

    133. The Point of Maximal Impulse could be appreciated in:

    • 5th left ICS, midclavicular line

    • 5th left ICS, 3.5 inches from midline

    • 5th left ICS, 9 cm from midline

    • Any of the above


    200 items

    134. A physician orders an electrocardiogram for a patient diagnosed with congestive heart failure (CHF). The medical record indicates the patient is currently taking Digitalis. What effect would you expect Digitalis to have on patient’s ECG?

    • Lengthened ventricular activation time

    • Increased refractory period of AV node

    • Lengthened QT interval

    • Elevated ST segment


    200 items

    135. Proteins that are secreted by cells are:

    • Not synthesized on membrane-bound ribosomes

    • Initially synthesized with a signal peptide or leader sequence at their C terminal

    • Found in vescicles and secretory granules

    • Moved acroos the cell membrane by endocytosis

    • Secreted in a form that is larger than the form present in the endoplasmic reticulum


    200 items

    136. The use of combination of Digoxin, Lasix and Cardizem ( Ca-channel blocker) are medical management primarily for:

    • Mitral valve collapse

    • Congestive heart failure

    • Corpulmonale

    • Endocarditis


    200 items

    137. A variety of factors can influence blood pressure. Which group of individuals would you expect to have the lowest systolic BP?

    • 10 y.o.

    • 30 y.o.

    • 50 y.o.

    • 70 y.o.


    200 items

    138. This hormone inhibits secretion of insulin and glucagon and slows down the absorption of nutrients from the gastrointestinal tract:

    • Cortisol

    • Somatostatin

    • Somatotropin

    • Inhibin

    • Mineralocorticoid


    200 items

    139. Decreases vascular resistance by inhibiting calcium-mediated contraction of vascular smooth muscle:

    • Calcium, channel blockers

    • Beta – adrenergic blockers

    • Diuretics

    • Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor


    200 items

    140. The primary filtration barrier for plasma protein:a.      Podocytesb.      Endotheliumc.      Mesothelial cellsd.      Basement membrane


    200 items

    141. Best way to monitor patient in Phase 2 cardiac rehabilitation:

    • Quick look

    • Heart rate

    • RPE

    • All of these


    200 items

    142. In normal ECG/EKG, what wave or change in shape of the ECG results from atrial depolarization:

    • P wave

    • T wave

    • QRS complex

    • ST segment


    200 items

    143. Which of the following statements describe erythrocytes?

    • These are formed in the bone marrow where they pass through several stages before reaching maturity

    • A mature red cell is completely filled with hemoglobin, a highly specialized compound of protein and iron

    • The wall of each erythrocyte is made up of a number of ultimate compounds of carbohydrates and fats

    • The life of an erythrocyte is about four months and four million new cells every second of every minute must be produced

    • They are produced in red bone marrow and in the spleen and other lymphoid tissues

  • I,II, III,V

  • II,III,V

  • III,IV,V

  • IV,V

  • II,IV


  • 200 items

    144. Decreases vascular resistance by inhibiting calcium-mediated contraction of vascular smooth muscle:

    • Calcium, channel blockers

    • Beta – adrenergic blockers

    • Diuretics

    • Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors


    200 items

    145. Gastric emptying is mainly the function of the:

    • Pylorus

    • Fundus

    • Distal body

    • Proximal body

    • None of these


    200 items

    146. . Upon evaluation of a patient post myocardial infarct, you check the patient’s medical chart, which includes an electrocardiograph. It shows an absent P-wave. This indicated the following abnormality:

    • Infarct

    • Ischemia

    • Pericarditis

    • Ventricular arrhythmia

    • Congestive heart failure


    200 items

    147. Myocardial oxygen consumption is a measure of the oxygen consumed by the myocardial muscle. The ability to supply the myocardium with oxygen is dependent on the:

    • Arterial hemoglobin content

    • Hemoglobin oxygen dissociation

    • Coronary blood flow

    • All of these


    200 items

    148. In O – A – B blood group systems, the agglutinins responsible for causing transfusion reaction develop spontaneously; whereas in the RH system spontaneous agglutinins almost never occur:

    • Both statements are true

    • The first statement is true, the second is false

    • The first statement is false, the second is true

    • Both are true


    200 items

    149. Patients with MET level 7 would mean:

    • NYC classification II

    • Can do all household chores

    • Both

    • None


    200 items

    150. A PT attempts to quantify a patient’s endurance level by administering a maximal exercise test. What is the primary limitation of the maximal exercise test?

    • It requires participants to exercise only to the point of volitional fatigue

    • Does not typically allow a steady state HR at each work rate

    • Is not useful in diagnosing CAD

    • Requires progressive stages of increasing work intensities without rest intervals


    200 items

    151.. An 83 y /o outpatient has been referred for cardiovascular conditioning, her diagnosis is intermittent claudication and the exercise prescription limits activity to less than 5 Mets. The frequency and duration for treating this patient:

    • 3x/wk x 30 min each visit

    • 3x/wk BID X 30 min each visit

    • Once a week for 60 minutes with frequent rest period

    • 5x/wk X 30 min each


    200 items

    152. This is usually found in patients with cretinism:

    • Hypoparathyroidism

    • Hyperthyroidism

    • Hypothyroidism

    • Hyperparathyroidism


    200 items

    153. This channel communicates with the periosteum at the bone’s surface and receives fluid from the haversiancanal:

    • Lamellae

    • Lacuna

    • Canaliculus

    • None of these

    • Volkmann’s canal


    200 items

    154. Deciduous molars are replaced by:

    • Wisdom teeth canines

    • Incisors

    • Molars

    • Canines

    • Bicuspids


    200 items

    155. The action potential of skeletal muscles:

    • Is not essential for contraction

    • Is longer than the action potential of cardiac muscle

    • Causes of the immediate uptake of calcium into the lateral sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

    • Spreads inward to all parts of the muscle via T tubules

    • Has a prolonged plateau phase


    200 items

    156. A high school coach asks you what is the best type of exercise to improve an athlete’s vertical jump. Which of the following exercise types would be the best to achieve this goal?

    • Closed chain

    • Open chain

    • Plyometrics

    • DeLorme’s


    200 items

    157. You have been asked to teach a class at a local gym for a group of geriatric athletes. Which of the following is not a general guideline for exercise prescription in this patient population?

    • Use machines for strength training rather tha free weights

    • Always warm-up prior to exercise

    • No pain, no gain

    • Try to incorporate both aerobic and anaerobic exercise


    200 items

    158. Hypertrophy is the muscular response to strength training. This can be expected to occur following at least:

    • 6-8 weeks of training

    • 1-2 weeks of training

    • 3-4 weeks of training

    • 2-3 weeks of training


    200 items

    159. Which of the following will be emptied first?

    • 300 calorie semi solid high protein

    • 300 calorie liquid high carbohydrate

    • 300 calorie liquid high protein

    • 300 calorie solid high protein\300 calorie solid high carbohydrate


    200 items

    160. Contraindicated to condition with cold intolerance:

    • DVT

    • MS

    • Cancer

    • Raynaud’s Phenomenon


    200 items

    161. Preoperative instructions to a patient who will undergo CABG to prevent atelectasis:

    • Diaphragmatic breathing

    • Sustained inspiratory training

    • Frog breathing

    • Sip and puff

    • None


    200 items

    162. This is deemed the most important phase of cardiac rehabilitation:

    • Maintenance

    • Convalescence

    • In-patient

    • Out –patient


    200 items

    163. Which of the following pancreatic enzymes acts to produce smaller peptides from proteins?

    • Chymotrypsin

    • Amylase

    • Pepsin

    • Phosphatase

    • Nucleosidase

  • I, II only

  • II and III

  • II and IV

  • IV only

  • I only


  • 200 items

    164. All of the following can elicit the enterogastric reflex, except:

    • Presence of any irritant on the gastric mucosa

    • Degree of duodenal distention

    • Degree of acidity of the duodenal chime

    • Degree of the osmolality of the chime


    200 items

    165. The action potential of skeletal muscles:

    • Is not essential for contraction

    • Is longer than the action potential of cardiac muscle

    • Causes of the immediate uptake of calcium into the lateral sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

    • Spreads inward to all parts of the muscle via T tubules

    • Has a prolonged plateau phase


    200 items

    166. Which part of the neuron has the highest concentration of sodium channels per square millimeter of cell membrane

    • Dendrites

    • Cell body near dendrites

    • Initial segment

    • Axonal membrane under myelin

    • None of these


    200 items

    167. This hormone inhibits secretion of insulin and glucagon and slows down the absorption of nutrients from the gastrointestinal tract:

    • Cortisol

    • Somatostatin

    • Somatotropin

    • Inhibin


    200 items

    168. This is the most important management of bipedal edema:

    • Leg elevation

    • Bedrest

    • Effleurage massage

    • Petrissage massage

    • Mobilizations


    200 items

    169. The kidneys function is to remove waste products of metabolism, the following is/are waste products that are being removed in the renal system via tubular excretion, EXCEPT:

    • Creatine

    • Uric acid

    • Bilirubin

    • Urea

    • None of the above

  • II, III and IV

  • III only

  • IV only

  • V only

  • II and V


  • 200 items

    170. Bacterial activity in the colon is responsible for the formation of several necessary substances. Among them are the following, EXCEPT:

    • Vitamin C

    • Vitamin K

    • Vitamin B12

    • Riboflavin

    • Thiamine


    200 items

    171. In order from the small intestine to the anus, the major regions of the large intestines are:

    • Ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, cecum, rectum, anal canal

    • Cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, rectum, anal canal

    • Ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, cecum, anal canal, rectum

    • Cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, anal canal, cecum, rectum

    • Ascending colon, transverse colon, decending colon, anal canal, cecum, rectum


    200 items

    172. Which of the following secrete gastric acid?

    • Mucous cells

    • Parietal cells

    • Chief cells

    • Serosa cells

    • Chime cells

  • I and II

  • II only

  • II and III

  • I, II and III


  • 200 items

    173. Angiotensin II is a circulating hormone that regulates low level of Arterial BP through the following mechanism:a.      Increasing the GFRb.      Vasodilation of the afferent arteriolesc.      Vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriolesd.      Decrease the level of ADH  and Aldosterone


    200 items

    174. The anterior pituitary secretes the following hormones EXCEPT:a.      ADHb.      FSHc.      hGHd.      Prolactine.      TSH


    200 items

    175. The following describes the pineal gland:a.      Secretes nine major hormonesb.      A cone shaped gland that overlies the tectum of the midbrainc.      Secretes melanin a hormone responsibe for the circadian rhythmd.      A pea-shaped gland  that rests in the sellatursica of the sphenoid bone


    200 items

    176. A patient with DM is exercising late in the late afternoon complains of irritability, tremors, headache and blurred vision. The presenting signs and symptoms indicates:a.      Heat strokeb.      Heat exhaustionc.      Hypoglycemiad.      Hyperglycemia


    200 items

    177 . The following describes Diabetes Mellitus Type I EXCEPT:I.      Prone to ketoacidosisII.     Ketosis-resistantIII.    Decrease in size and number of Islets of LangerhansIV.     Inadequate utilization of insulina.      I and IIIb.      II and IVc.      II and IIId.      III and IV


    200 items

    178. A patient with a long history of systemic steroid use for asthma control has a contraindication for percussion if there is evidence of:

    • intercostals muscle wasting

    • decreased bone density

    • BP > 140/90

    • barrel chest


    200 items

    179. Facilitated diffusion may be described by the ff. Statements, EXCEPT:

    • Carrier proteins are involved in the transport of the substance

    • The rate of diffusion is faster than simple diffusion

    • The direction of diffusion is driven by electrical or concentration gradients

    • ATP cleavage is required

    • None of these


    200 items

    180. The primary filtration barrier for plasma protein:a.      Podocytesb.      Endotheliumc.      Mesothelial cellsd.      Basement membrane


    200 items

    181. The work performed by the left ventricle is substantially greater than that performed by the right ventricle, because in the left ventricle:

    • The contraction is slower

    • The wall is thicker

    • The afterload is greater

    • The stroke volume is greater

    • The preload is greater


    200 items

    182. Fast twitch fibers differ from slow twitch fibers, EXCEPT:

    • Number of capillaries per mass of fibers is greater in slow twitch fibers

    • Type II organizes for endurance

    • Type II can achieve 2x the maximal power

    • Type II are 2x in diameter


    200 items

    183. Filling of ventricles occurs maximally during:

    • Rapid ejection period

    • First 1/3 of diastole

    • Isovolumic contraction period

    • Vasodilation

    • Atrial systole


    200 items

    184. 5 days following Myocardial Infarction, you begin to ambulate the patient for the first time. After 1 minute the patient experience significant exertionalDyspnea and very strong and uncomfortable angina pain. In this case you should:

    • Go back to previously done self care

    • Cease ambulation immediately and consult the MD with previously done self care activities at a later time or the next day

    • Have the patient walk with angina since the pain will often disappear

    • None


    200 items

    185. Which of the following is not true about smooth muscle contraction as opposed to skeletal muscle contraction?

    • Cycling of cross-bridges is slower in smooth muscle contraction

    • Lesser energy is required is slower in smooth muscle contraction

    • Maximum force of contraction is greater in smooth muscles

    • Greater shortening of smooth muscles during contraction

    • None of these


    200 items

    186. These molecules supply energy to myofilaments to allow movement of the actin filaments toward the center of the A bands.

    • Adenosine triphosphate

    • Calcium ions

    • Adenosine diphosphate

    • All of these


    200 items

    187. You are teaching your patient self assisted coughing techniques. You will instruct your patient to:

    • put upward pressure on hypogastric area

    • put downward pressure on epigastric area

    • put upward pressure on epigastric area

    • put downward pressure on hypogastric area


    200 items

    188. In tuberculosis, post primary infarction is characterized by the following symptoms except:

    • Night sweats

    • None of these

    • Weight loss

    • Slight non-productive cough


    200 items

    189. A physical therapist should be alert to recognize the signs and symptoms associated with the onset of aspiration pneumonia. Of the following, the patient MOST susceptible to develop this form of pneumonia is one with:

    a. a complete spinal cord lesion at T2 with diminished coughing ability

    b. a circumferential burn of the thorax associated with significant pain

    c. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis with dysphagia and diminished gag reflex

    d. severe scoliosis with compression of internal organs


    200 items

    190. This type of pulse abnormality is seen in Cardiac Tamponade:

    • Bisfriens

    • Paradoxical

    • Alternans

    • Bounding


    200 items

    191. Blood clotting mechanisms include the following except:

    • Prothrombin is catalyzed into thrombin

    • Fibrinogen is converted into fibrin threads to form clot itself

    • Prothrombin acts as enzyme to convert fibrinogen into fibrin threads

    • Prothombrin activator is formed in response to a ruptured vessel wall


    200 items

    192. A physical therapist examines the heart sounds of a 48 y/o female S/P CABG. When auscultating, the therapist identifies the heart sound associated with closing of the mitral and tricuspid valves. The heart sound BEST describes:

    • S1

    • S2

    • S3

    • S4


    200 items

    193. How might the patient with obstructive pulmonary disease help overcome air trapping?

    • forcefully inhale as long as possible

    • slowly inhale until the lungs are fully expanded

    • rapidly alternate forceful inspiration with forceful expiration

    • exhale with the lips pursed


    200 items

    196. Which of the following factors affect blood pressure?

    • Size and conduction of arteries

    • Cardiac output

    • Blood volume

    • Arm position

  • I, III

  • II, IV

  • IV only

  • I,II,III

  • All are correct


  • 200 items

    194. . The following are observed during ventricular systole EXCEPT:

    • Closure of the tricuspid valves

    • Opening of the Mitral Valve

    • Filling of the coronary Arteries

    • Closure of the Pulmonary Valve


    200 items

    195. Beta – blockers medication decreases the demand of the heart muscle and can improve the exercise power of patient with angina pectoris by:

    • Decrease BP and HR, increases contractility and cardiac output

    • Decrease BP, increase HR, contractility and CO

    • Decrease HR, BP, contractility and CO

    • Increase BP and HR, decrease contractility and CO


    200 items

    197. The most concentrated filtrate is found in the:

    • Collecting duct

    • Distal tubule

    • Proximal tubule

    • Collecting tubule

    • Descending loop of Henle

  • I and II

  • I, II and III

  • I only

  • II, IV and V

  • III only


  • 200 items

    198. This type of pulse abnormality is seen in aortic stenosis:

    • Weak

    • Strong

    • Alternating

    • Paradoxus


    200 items

    199. Concentration and dilution of urine depends on the influence of hormone in the specific tubular segment, which makes the following statement/s true:a. The higher the level of ADH the more diluted is the urineb. The lower the level of ADH the more concentrated the urinec. The higher the level of ADH the more concentrated is the urined. The lower the level of Aldosterone the more is diluted the urinee. The higher the level of Aldosterone the more concentrated is the urine


    200 items

    200. Risk factor of coronary artery disease includes age, gender, family history, cigarette smoking, obesity, physical inactivity and blood lipid abnormality. The distribution of lipoprotein associated with lower risk heart disease:

    • High HDL and LDL

    • Low HDL and LDL

    • High level of HDL and low level of LDL

    • Low level of HDL and high level of LDL


  • Login