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1. Psychology is defined as:. A) the study of dreams and childhood trauma B) the study of behavior. C) the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. D) the science of behavior and consequences.

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1. Psychology is defined as:

  • A) the study of dreams and childhood trauma

  • B) the study of behavior.

  • C) the scientific study of behavior and mental processes.

  • D) the science of behavior and consequences.


An essay of the political philosopher _____, arguing the mind is a blank slate, helped form modern empiricism.

  • A) Bacon

  • B) Locke

  • C) Descartes

  • D) Plato


6. The first psychological laboratory was established by:

  • A) Wilhelm Wundt.

  • B) Sigmund Freud.

  • C) John Locke.

  • D) B.F. Skinner.


7. Tichner believed in the method called ____ to investigate psychological processes.

  • A) the experimental method

  • B) cause-and-effect relationships

  • C) introspection

  • D) psychoanalysis


8. William James studied behavior based on how it was adaptive. He was heavily influenced by _____.

  • A) John Locke

  • B) Charles Darwin

  • C) Sigmund Freud

  • D) Francis Bacon


11. Watson and Skinner would be in agreement in their:

  • A) high esteem of psychoanalysis.

  • B) dismissal of introspection.

  • C) definition of psychology as the study of behavior and mental processes.

  • D) study of cognitive neuroscience.


13. A psychologist explains human mate selection in terms of helping the species to continue. She is using the ____ perspective.

  • A) social-cultural

  • B) neuroscience

  • C) evolutionary

  • D) biological


15. In studying anger, the psychologist who views an anger outburst as an outlet for unconscious hostility is coming from the ___ perspective.

  • A) neuroscience

  • B) evolutionary

  • C) cognitive

  • D) psychodynamic


17. The ___ has a medical degree and prescribes medication.

  • A) clinical psychologist

  • B) neuropsychologist

  • C) psychiatrist

  • D) all of the above


1. Psychology is currently defined as:

  • A) the scientific study of behavior.

  • B) the scientific study of behavior and mental processes.

  • C) the scientific study of biological and cognitive processes.

  • D) the scientific study of motives and conflicts.


2. The ____ administers tests and provides therapy and the ___ prescribes medication.

  • A) clinical psychologist; psychiatrist

  • B) psychiatrist; clinical psychologist

  • C) counseling psychologist; clinical psychologist

  • D) school psychologist; clinical psychologist


4. Dr. James proposes that mens desire for young, healthy women contributes to the survival of the human species. He is taking the ___ perspective.

  • A) psychodynamic

  • B) neurological

  • C) evolutionary

  • D) socio-cultural


6. Julie appeared not to be surprised when the couple broke up. I could have predicted that, she said. Julie is demonstrating:

  • A) ESP.

  • B) hindsight bias.

  • C) overestimation the extent to which others share her opinion.

  • D) correlation proves causation.


10. The following is an example of an operational definition:

  • A) stress is defined as how well a person adjusts to his/her environment.

  • B) personality is defined as how well that person relates to others.

  • C) empathy is defined as showing you can understand the other persons feelings.

  • D) intelligence is defined as a score on an intelligence test.

  • E) all of the above.


11. When everybody has an equal chance of being included in a study, this process is called:

  • A) unbiased reporting.

  • B) a survey.

  • C) a random sample.

  • D) reliability.


12. Which of the following correlation coefficients reflects the strongest correlation?

  • A) +.10

  • B) -.64

  • C) +.35

  • D) -.10


13. A mistaken belief that two factors or events are related when they are not is called:

  • A) the rule of falsifiability.

  • B) pseudoscience.

  • C) an illusory correlation.

  • D) paranormal phenomena.


15. Consistently, we find low self-esteem is often related with high levels of depression. This means:

  • A) low self-esteem causes depression.

  • B) depression causes low self-esteem.

  • C) low self-esteem and depression are caused by a third factor.

  • D) they are correlated but this does not prove causation.


16. In order to prove a cause-and-effect relationship, we must use:

  • A) naturalistic observation.

  • B) the experimental method.

  • C) human subjects.

  • D) correlation coefficients.


17. In an experiment, the group of participants who are exposed to the treatment of interest is in the:

  • A) control condition.

  • B) independent condition.

  • C) placebo condition.

  • D) experimental condition.


18. Neither the researcher nor the subjects knew whether or not they received the drug studied or a placebo. This is an example of:

  • A) expectancy effects.

  • B) placebo effects.

  • C) a double-blind study.

  • D) nothing. It would be ridiculous.


20. Dr. Schulte wants to investigate if aggressive behavior in children is increased if they view violent videos. In this instance, the dependent variable is:

  • A) violent videos.

  • B) aggressive behavior.

  • C) a placebo.

  • D) the control condition.


21. Which measure of central tendency is the exact middle score of a distribution of scores?

  • A) mean

  • B) median

  • C) mode

  • D) coefficient


1. Branching fibers extending out from the cell body to receive information from other neurons are called:

  • A) axons.

  • B) glial cells.

  • C) dendrites.

  • D) axon terminals.


2. ___ wrap(s) many axons, insulating them and speeding their impulses.

  • A) Sodium ions

  • B) Myelin

  • C) Glial cells

  • D) Potassium ions


3. The brief electrical impulse transmitted along the axon is called the:

  • A) action potential.

  • B) stimulus threshold.

  • C) electrical cascade.

  • D) sodium pump.


6. The device called a(n) ___ provides moment-by-moment images of the brains changing activity and is noninvasive.

  • A) EEG

  • B) PET scan

  • C) MRI

  • D) fMRI


7. The ___ receives information from all the senses except smell.

  • A) hippocampus

  • B) amygdala

  • C) thalamus

  • D) angular gyrus


8. The ____ is located at the back of the brain and is responsible for muscle coordination, posture and equilibrium.

  • A) corpus callosum

  • B) reticular formation

  • C) pons

  • D) cerebellum


9. These make up most of the cerebral cortex, and enable learning, memory and integrating information.

  • A) reticular formations

  • B) projection areas

  • C) association areas

  • D) temporal lobes


10. Auditory information is received and processed in the:

  • A) somatosensory cortex.

  • B) temporal lobe.

  • C) parietal lobe.

  • D) frontal lobe.


11. An impaired use of language due to a brain lesion is known as:

  • A) tomography.

  • B) aphasia.

  • C) plasticity.

  • D) phrenology.


12. The ability of one part of the brain to take over the function of another in case of injury is called:

  • A) plasticity.

  • B) neurogenesis.

  • C) brain reintegration.

  • D) neural net reformation.


13. After Sams stroke, he had difficulty speaking, but could understand what others were saying to him. He likely had damage to:

  • A) Wernickes Area.

  • B) Brocas Area.

  • C) his Thalamus.

  • D) his parietal lobe.


14. After a sky-diving accident, Laurie was unable to make sense of other peoples speech. It is likely that her cortex was damaged in:

  • A) the sensory area.

  • B) Brocas area.

  • C) the angular gyrus.

  • D) Wernickes area.


15. In a recent car accident, Justin sustained damage to his right cerebral hemisphere. This injury is most likely to reduce his ability to:

  • A) tell an angry face from a happy one.

  • B) solve arithmetic problems.

  • C) speak clearly.

  • D) process information quickly.


16. In order for you to experience the pain of being stuck with a pin, ___ must first relay messages from your ankle to your central nervous system.

  • A) the limbic system.

  • B) interneurons.

  • C) sensory neurons.

  • D) the reticular formation.


17. When youre stressed and your heart races, perspiration increases and pupils dilate, the ___ is activated.

  • A) somatic nervous system

  • B) parasympathetic branch

  • C) sympathetic branch

  • D) spinal reflex


19. The ____ system is made up of glands which secret ___ into the bloodstream.

  • A) peripheral nervous; antagonists

  • B) sympathetic; neurotransmitters

  • C) autonomic; action potentials

  • D) endocrine; hormones


21. This device is often used to diagnose seizure activity by recording electrical activity of the brain:

  • A) CAT scan.

  • B) EEG.

  • C) PET scan.

  • D) MRI.


22. A person with a split brain had surgery to cut the:

  • A) frontal lobe.

  • B) corpus callosum.

  • C) sensory from the motor strip.

  • D) cerebellum from the cerebral cortex.


23. The person most likely to suggest that the shape of a persons skull indicates the extent to which that individual is argumentative and aggressive would be a:

  • A) neurologist.

  • B) behavior geneticist.

  • C) psychoanalyst.

  • D) phrenologist.


24: Phineas Gage had extensive damage to his ____ of the brain, effecting his ____.

  • A) frontal lobe; personality

  • B) right hemisphere; speech

  • C) left temporal lobe; reasoning

  • D) cerebellum; coordination


25. Stimulate this area in a cat, and it will either fear a mouse or become extremely aggressive.

  • A) hippocampus.

  • B) hypothalamus.

  • C) amygdala.

  • D) thalamus.


2. The prenatal stage of development has three phases, in the order of:

  • A) embryo, fetus, zygote.

  • B) zygote, fetus, embryo.

  • C) fertile, fetal, birth.

  • D) zygote, embryo, fetus.


3. Teratogens are:

  • A) recessive genes that result in birth defects.

  • B) microorganisms that can cause mutations in normal development.

  • C) toxic agents which can cause defects in an embryo or fetus.

  • D) alleles that react negatively to the environment.


6. Touching a newborns cheek can trigger the ___ reflex, turning its head toward the source of touch and opening its mouth.

  • A) sucking.

  • B) rooting.

  • C) grasping.

  • D) nuzzling.


7. Newborns prefer to look at:

  • A) a bulls eye pattern.

  • B) a human face.

  • C) a circle.

  • D) a shiny object.


8. As infants gain familiarity with repeated exposure to a visual stimulus, their interest wanes and they look away sooner. This is called:

  • A) habituation.

  • B) visual boredom.

  • C) visual exhaustion.

  • D) object permanence.


9. Psychologists who study physical, social and cognitive changes throughout the human life cycle are:

  • A) child psychologists.

  • B) developmental psychologists.

  • C) clinical psychologists.

  • D) cognitive-behavioral psychologists.


10. Timmys father covered up a toy with a towel. At age 4 months, Timmy did not look for it, but at 5 months, Timmy lifted the towel to get the toy. Timmy has developed:

  • A) egocentrism.

  • B) object permanence.

  • C) accommodation.

  • D) conservation.


12. An adolescents occasional impulsive and immature behavior is at least partly a reflection of the last brain area to mature, the:

  • A) frontal cortex.

  • B) temporal lobes.

  • C) sensory strip.

  • D) parietal lobes.


13. According to Kohlbergs theory of moral development, following the letter of the law is:

  • A) called conventional morality.

  • B) called postconventional morality.

  • C) the highest level of morality.

  • D) difficult for adolescents.


14. According to Erik Eriksons Psychosocial Stages of Development, adolescence must deal with the psychosocial conflict of:

  • A) intimacy vs. isolation.

  • B) identity vs. role confusion.

  • C) industry vs. inferiority.

  • D) initiative vs. guilt.


17. During middle adulthood, the primary psychosocial task is to:

  • A) experiment with different roles.

  • B) review his or her life to find meaningfulness.

  • C) establish lasting and meaningful relationships.

  • D) contribute to future generations.


20. On which of the following tasks are 60-year-old adults most likely to outperform 20-year-old adults?

  • A) analogies.

  • B) solving an abstract geometry problem.

  • C) recalling previously presented nonsense syllables.

  • D) answering questions quickly.


25. Jamie does not steal a candy bar from the store because he is afraid his mother will spank him if he is caught. Jamie best represents a(n) _____ morality.

  • A) preoperational

  • B) preconventional

  • C) conventional

  • D) postconventional


1. Cones are different from rods in that:

  • A) rods respond to color.

  • B) cones respond to color.

  • C) cones need less light.

  • D) B and C are true.


2. The center of the retina is the ___ and has mostly ___.

  • A) fovea; cones

  • B) fovea; rods

  • C) blind spot; ganglion cells

  • D) optic disk; nerves


3. The lens thins or thickens to focus light in a process known as:

  • A) visual sharpening.

  • B) lens bending.

  • C) accommodation.

  • D) optic chiasm.


4. Webers law has to do with the ___ of a stimulus.

  • A) absolute threshold

  • B) just noticeable difference

  • C) subliminal threshold

  • D) sensory adaptation


7. The sequence of hearing is in the order of:

  • A) eardrum, auditory canal, middle ear, inner ear.

  • B) cochlea, eardrum, middle ear, inner ear.

  • C) eardrum, middle ear, auditory canal, cochlea.

  • D) auditory canal, eardrum, middle ear, cochlea.


11. Unlike other senses, the sense of ___ does not travel to the thalamus, but goes directly to the cerebral cortex.

  • A) gustation

  • B) olfaction

  • C) vestibular

  • D) kinesthesia


12. Receptor cells have been identified for five tastes including sweet, salty, sour, ___ and ___.

  • A) wet; rough

  • B) hot; bitter

  • C) spicy; acrid

  • D) bitter; umami


13. The kinesthetic sense involves:

  • A) the sense of balance or equilibrium.

  • B) the sense of pain.

  • C) the location and position of body parts in relation to each other.

  • D) hair-like receptor cells in the semicircular canals.


14. The gate-control theory has to do with:

  • A) how the brain regulates pain.

  • B) how the brain sensitizes us to feel more acutely.

  • C) providing information about body position and movement.

  • D) difference thresholds in the sense of touch.


16. Analyzing that begins with the sensory receptors and works up to the brains integration of data is called:

  • A) sensory processing.

  • B) bottom-up processing.

  • C) natural order integration.

  • D) informational flow.


17. The minimum stimulus necessary to detect it 50% of the time is called the:

  • A) central tendency.

  • B) minimum flash point.

  • C) absolute threshold.

  • D) sensory half-life.


18. A movie theaters manager wants to sell more popcorn by flashing subliminal advertising during the previews. You tell him:

  • A) subliminal persuasion doesnt work.

  • B) he needs to do it several times.

  • C) he must accompany it with a bell.

  • D) he has to time it differently for it to work on different people.


20. Applying Webers Law to business, if a $5 meal has to increase to $5.50 for us to notice much of a difference, how much would a $20,000 car have to increase for us to notice?

  • A) $2,000

  • B) $200

  • C) $5,000

  • D) $1,000


22. ___ theory assumes that stimulus detection depends on experience, expectations, motivation, and level of alertness.

  • A) Stimulus-response

  • B) Choice pattern recognition

  • C) Signal detection

  • D) Sensory consolidation


24: The blind spot does not normally impair vision because:

  • A) the eyes are constantly moving

  • B) what one eye misses the other sees.

  • C) our brain fills in the spaces.

  • D) all of the above.


1. When two or more lights blink on and off in quick succession, it gives the appearance of movement. This is called the:

  • A) movement illusion.

  • B) phi phenomenon.

  • C) visual capture.

  • D) optical tracking illusion.


6. We sometimes reverse images because of changes in the relationship of:

  • A) light and shadow.

  • B) figure-ground.

  • C) size and dimension.

  • D) connectedness.


7. We see this as two figures together rather than as many curved and straight lines because of the rule of:

  • A) connectedness.

  • B) proximity.

  • C) continuity.

  • D) similarity.


8. Relative Clarity helps us to determine ___ because:

  • A) size; clear objects appear larger.

  • B) depth; clear objects appear farther.

  • C) luminescence; nearer objects are brighter.

  • D) depth; distant objects appear hazy.


9. If we assume that two objects are similar in size, the one that casts the smaller retinal image is assumed to be:

  • A) closer.

  • B) smaller.

  • C) farther away.

  • D) larger.


11. If a person were to wear glasses that distorted vision upside down, that person:

  • A) would eventually adapt.

  • B) would never adapt.

  • C) would have his vision permanently distorted.

  • D) would adapt but now must always wear the glasses to see.


13. Dave was listening to sad music when he heard the word, morning, which he mistook for, mourning. He was influenced by:

  • A) clinical depression.

  • B) context effect.

  • C) depressogenic schemas.

  • D) a low level of serotonin.


16. The whole is greater than the sum of its parts, has been most associated with a:

  • A) Clinical psychologist.

  • B) Gestalt psychologist.

  • C) Cognitive-Behavioral psychologist.

  • D) Perceptual psychologist.


17.Retinal disparity refers to the:

  • A) tendency to see parallel lines as coming together in the distance.

  • B) tendency to see stimuli that are near each other as parts of a unified object.

  • C) somewhat different images our two eyes receive of the same object.

  • D) extent to which our eyes turn toward each other when looking at an object.


18. The perceptual tendency to fill in gaps in order to perceive disconnected parts as a whole object is called:

  • A) closure.

  • B) constancy.

  • C) interposition.

  • D) convergence.


19. All of the following are monocular cues of depth perception except:

  • A) motion parallax.

  • B) linear perspective.

  • C) convergence.

  • D) relative height.

  • E) texture gradient.


21. When we expect to see something because of prior learning experiences, such as seeing clouds as UFOs, it is because of:

  • A) bottom-up processing.

  • B) previous abductions.

  • C) hypnotic suggestion.

  • D) perceptual set.


23. Even though a door may reflect quite a different retinal image when it is open than when it is closed, we still see it as the same, rectangular door because of:

  • A) illusory contours.

  • B) shape constancy.

  • C) retinal disparity.

  • D) perceptual closure.


25. As she gazed down from a bridge at the rapidly flowing river, Nancy felt as thought she were moving. Her experience best illustrates the phenomenon of:

  • A) retinal disparity.

  • B) perceptual adaptation.

  • C) location constancy.

  • D) visual capture.


1. Consciousness is:

  • A) the ability to solve problems, reason, and remember.

  • B) the sudden and often novel realization of the solution to a problem.

  • C) the process of organizing and interpreting sensory information.

  • D) our awareness of ourselves and our environment.


4. Altered states of consciousness are physiologically induced, like ___; and psychologically induced, like ___.

  • A) hallucinations; meditation

  • B) dreaming; hallucinations

  • C) sensory deprivation; orgasm

  • D) orgasm; oxygen deprivation


An evolutionary explanation about why we sleep would be to:

  • A) repair our brain.

  • B) promote growth.

  • C) keep us safe.

  • D) help us to remember.


6. Biological processes that systematically vary over a period of 24 hours are called:

  • A) daily regimens.

  • B) circadian rhythms.

  • C) sleep-wake cycles.

  • D) lunar cycles.


8. The rhythmic bursts of brain activity that occur during Stage 2 sleep are called:

  • A) alpha waves.

  • B) paradoxical sleep.

  • C) sleep spindles.

  • D) delta waves.


9. Sleep deprivation has been shown to:

  • A) increase attentiveness to highly motivating tasks.

  • B) reduce hypertension.

  • C) enhance memory.

  • D) diminish immunity to disease.


17. The need to take larger and larger doses of a drug in order to experience its effects is an indication of:

  • A) withdrawal.

  • B) dissociation.

  • C) resistance.

  • D) tolerance.


21. After ingesting a small dose of a drug, Jen experienced vivid visual hallucinations and felt as if she were separated from her own body. She most likely experienced the effects of:

  • A) cocaine.

  • B) LSD.

  • C) heroin.

  • D) marijuana.


22. Which of the following is an amphetamine that acts as a mild hallucinogen?

  • A) Marijuana

  • B) Nembutal

  • C) Ecstasy

  • D) LSD


1. In Pavlovs experiment, the dogs salivation to the bell is the:

  • A) unconditioned stimulus.

  • B) unconditioned response.

  • C) conditioned stimulus.

  • D) conditioned response.


2. Jimmy was frightened by a barking dog. For the next few months, he was afraid of all dogs. This is an example of:

  • A) stimulus generalization.

  • B) stimulus discrimination.

  • C) unconditioned response.

  • D) unconditioned stimulus.


3. After repeatedly presenting the CS without the UCS, the CR will gradually disappear. This is called:

  • A) extinguished reaction.

  • B) extinction.

  • C) stimulus discrimination.

  • D) stimulus neutralization.


4. Once extinction has occurred, the CR may return if enough time has passed. This is an example of:

  • A) spontaneous remission.

  • B) stimulus generalization.

  • C) spontaneous recovery.

  • D) conditioned recurrence.


Which of the following would be an example of Classical Conditioning being applied to practical problems?

  • A) teaching a dog to wag its tail?

  • B) using methadone for heroine addicts.

  • C) applying electric shock to depressed patients.

  • D) giving alcoholics a drug to make them sick if they drink.


6. Purchasing state lottery tickets is reinforced with monetary winnings on a _____ schedule.

  • A) fixed-interval

  • B) variable-interval

  • C) fixed-ratio

  • D) variable-ratio


7. In ____, a response is strengthened in order to avoid something unpleasant.

  • A) punishment.

  • B) negative reinforcement.

  • C) partial reinforcement.

  • D) positive reinforcement.


10. If you want to teach a pigeon to eat out of your hand, you would place some bird seed closer and closer to you until it finally had to come to your hand. This is called:

  • A) intermittent reinforcement.

  • B) shaping.

  • C) partial reinforcement.

  • D) continuous reinforcement.


11. Jeremy wears his baseball cap backward because he noticed his older brother does so. This illustrates the importance of:

  • A) respondent behavior.

  • B) immediate reinforcement.

  • C) shaping.

  • D) modeling.


12. Albert Bandura contends that most human behavior:

  • A) is acquired through observational learning.

  • B) is shaped through repeated trial-and error.

  • C) is reinforced through positive conditioning.

  • D) is planned out and not accidental.


13. In Banduras Bobo Doll experiment, he demonstrated:

  • A) aggressive children will imitate aggressive behavior.

  • B) children will imitate aggressive behavior just by observing it.

  • C) children who are non-aggressive will not imitate aggressive behavior.

  • D) children will imitate aggressive behavior is reinforced with candy.


15. Based on what researchers have found about the effect of modeling on behavior,

  • A) we can decrease violence in our society if we decrease the amount of violence on TV.

  • B) we can increase pro-social behavior if we increase the amount of it on TV.

  • C) all of the above.

  • D) none of the above; TV doesnt change the way people behave.


16. After a week at college, Kim has formed a mental representation of the layout of the campus and no longer gets lost. She has developed a:

  • A) visual memory.

  • B) perceptual delineation.

  • C) cognitive map.

  • D) retinal disparity.


17. The fact that learning can occur without reinforcement is most clearly demonstrated by studies of:

  • A) shaping.

  • B) latent learning.

  • C) spontaneous recovery.

  • D) computer-assisted instruction.


19. It is easier to train a dog to bark for food than to train it to stand on its hind legs for food. This best illustrates the importance of ______ in learning.

  • A) primary reinforcement

  • B) generalization

  • C) negative reinforcers

  • D) biological predispositions


20. According to Thorndikes Law of Effect, when responses are followed by something unpleasant:

  • A) the response is strengthened.

  • B) the unpleasant stimulus is avoided.

  • C) the response is weakened.

  • D) the CR is extinguished.


21. Toddlers taught to fear speeding cars may also begin to fear speeding trucks and motorcycles. This best illustrates:

  • A) generalization.

  • B) secondary reinforcement.

  • C) shaping.

  • D) latent learning.


22. By pushing vending machine buttons, children often learn that this action is associated with the delivery of a candy bar. This best illustrates the process underlying:

  • A) latent learning.

  • B) intermittent reinforcement.

  • C) spontaneous recovery.

  • D) operant conditioning.


24: A childs fear at the sight of a hypodermic needle is a(n):

  • A) conditioned response.

  • B) unconditioned stimulus.

  • C) conditioned stimulus.

  • D) unconditioned response.


25. In explaining juvenile delinquency, B.F. Skinner would most likely have emphasized:

  • A) inherited predispositions.

  • B) unconscious conflicts.

  • C) faulty child-rearing practices.

  • D) a lack of moral values in contemporary society.


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