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Pharmacology I. Note Cards. Drug of choice for treatment of postoperative non-obstructive urinary retention. Bethanechol. Drug of choice for treatment of myasthenia gravis. Pyridostigmine. Drug of choice for diagnosis of Myasthenia gravis. Edrophonium.

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Pharmacology i

Pharmacology I

Note Cards


Drug of choice for treatment of postoperative non obstructive urinary retention
Drug of choice for treatment of postoperative non-obstructive urinary retention

  • Bethanechol


Drug of choice for treatment of myasthenia gravis
Drug of choice for non-obstructive urinary retentiontreatment of myasthenia gravis

  • Pyridostigmine


Drug of choice for diagnosis of myasthenia gravis
Drug of choice for non-obstructive urinary retentiondiagnosis of Myasthenia gravis

  • Edrophonium





Rebound tachycardia occurs with withdrawal of these drugs
Rebound tachycardia occurs with withdrawal of these drugs toxicity

  • Non-selective beta blockers

    • propranolol

    • timolol

    • sotalol





Best drug to use in examination of glaucoma patients
Best drug to use in examination of glaucoma patients toxicity

  • Phenylephrine--does not cause cycloplegia




Most effective expectorant
Most effective expectorant toxicity

  • Guaifenesin


Drug of choice for treatment of glaucoma in a broncho asthmatic patient
Drug of choice for treatment of glaucoma in a broncho-asthmatic patient

  • Betaxolol


Direct acting parasympathomimetics
Direct-acting Parasympathomimetics broncho-asthmatic patient

  • Carbachol

  • Bethanechol

  • Muscarine

  • Pilocarpine


Drug of choice for treatment of acute wide angle glaucoma
Drug of choice for treatment of acute wide angle glaucoma broncho-asthmatic patient

  • Pilocarpine


Is bethanechol a tert or a quat
Is Bethanechol a TERT or a QUAT? broncho-asthmatic patient

  • QUAT


Is pilocarpine a tert or a quat
Is Pilocarpine a TERT or a QUAT? broncho-asthmatic patient

  • TERT


Reversible indirect acting parasympathomimetics
Reversible indirect-acting Parasympathomimetics broncho-asthmatic patient

  • Physostigmine

  • Neostigmine

  • Edrophonium

  • Pyridostigmine

  • Demecarium


Irreversible indirect acting parasypathomimetics
Irreversible indirect-acting Parasypathomimetics broncho-asthmatic patient

  • Isoflurophate

  • Echothiophate

  • Dichlorvos

  • Trichlorfon


Tertiary parasympatholytics
Tertiary Parasympatholytics broncho-asthmatic patient

  • Atropine

  • Scopolamine

  • Dicyclomine


Antagonist of atropine
Antagonist of atropine broncho-asthmatic patient

  • Physostigmine


Quaternary parasympatholytics
Quaternary Parasympatholytics broncho-asthmatic patient

  • Glycopyrrolate

  • Propantheline

  • Ipratropium


Mydriatic parasympatholytics
Mydriatic Parasympatholytics broncho-asthmatic patient

  • Atropine

  • Scopolamine

  • Cyclopentolate

  • Homatropine

  • Tropicamide


Selective m1 blocker
Selective M1 blocker broncho-asthmatic patient

  • Pirenzepine


Selective m4 blocker
Selective M4 blocker broncho-asthmatic patient

  • Tropicamide


Name the major muscarinic antagonist
Name the major muscarinic antagonist broncho-asthmatic patient

  • Atropine


Ganglionic stimulants at small doses
Ganglionic stimulants (at small doses) broncho-asthmatic patient

  • Acetylcholine

  • Nicotine


Depolarizing ganglionic blockers
Depolarizing ganglionic blockers broncho-asthmatic patient

  • Acetylcholine

  • Nicotine


Competitive ganglionic blockers
Competitive ganglionic blockers broncho-asthmatic patient

  • Hexamethonium

  • Mecamylamine

  • Propantheline

  • Trimethaphan


Drug of choice for treatment of nicotine poisoning
Drug of choice for treatment of nicotine poisoning broncho-asthmatic patient

  • Mecamylamine--competitive ganglionic blocker


Alpha 1 selective agonists
Alpha -1 selective agonists broncho-asthmatic patient

  • Phenylephrine

  • Methoxamine


Beta 2 selective agonists
Beta-2 selective agonists broncho-asthmatic patient

  • Albuterol

  • Terbutaline

  • Metaproterenol

  • Clinbuterol


Indirect acting parasympathomimetics
Indirect-acting Parasympathomimetics broncho-asthmatic patient

  • physostigmine

  • neostigmine

  • edrophonium

  • pyridostigmine

  • demecarium


Ophthalmic organophosphates
Ophthalmic organophosphates broncho-asthmatic patient

  • Isoflurophate

  • Echothiophate


Anthelmintic organophosphate
Anthelmintic organophosphate broncho-asthmatic patient

  • Dichlorvos


Preanesthetic bronchodilator gi antispasmodic
Preanesthetic, bronchodilator, GI antispasmodic broncho-asthmatic patient

  • Glycopyrrolate


T or f propantheline blocks only muscarinic receptors
T or F: Propantheline blocks only muscarinic receptors broncho-asthmatic patient

  • F--it blocks ganglionic nicotinic receptors also (a parasympatholytic)


Catecholamine sympathomimetics
Catecholamine Sympathomimetics broncho-asthmatic patient

  • Epinephrine

  • Norepinephrine

  • Isoproterenol

  • Dopamine

  • Dobutamine


Epinephrine is an agonist at what adrenergic receptors
Epinephrine is an agonist at what adrenergic receptors? broncho-asthmatic patient

  • alpha 1

  • alpha 2

  • beta 1

  • beta 2


Norepinephrine act as agonist of what adrenergic receptors
Norepinephrine act as agonist of what adrenergic receptors? broncho-asthmatic patient

  • alpha 1

  • alpha 2

  • beta 1


A catecholamine that can cause reflex bradycardia
A catecholamine that can cause reflex bradycardia broncho-asthmatic patient

  • Norepinephrine


Isoproterenol act as agonist on what adrenergic receptors
Isoproterenol act as agonist on what adrenergic receptors? broncho-asthmatic patient

  • beta 1

  • beta 2


Dopamine acts as agonist at what receptors
Dopamine acts as agonist at what receptors? broncho-asthmatic patient

  • Dopaminergic

  • alpha 1

  • alpha 2

  • beta 1


Dobutamine acts as agonist on what receptors
Dobutamine acts as agonist on what receptors? broncho-asthmatic patient

  • beta 1 (mainly)

  • beta 2 & alpha (minor)


Dopamine s 2 most useful effects in conditions with decreased renal perfusion
Dopamine’s 2 most useful effects in conditions with decreased renal perfusion

  • Increased GFR

  • Renal vasodilation


Catecholamines given to correct hypotension due to inhalation anesthetics
Catecholamines given to correct hypotension due to inhalation anesthetics

  • Dopamine

  • Dobutamine


Non catecholamines

Ephedrine inhalation anesthetics

Pseudoephedrine

Phenylpropanolamine

Amphetamine

Cocaine

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors

Phenylephrine

Methoxamine

Albuterol

Terbutaline

Metaproterenol

Non Catecholamines


Direct indirect acting non catecholamines
Direct & Indirect acting non catecholamines inhalation anesthetics

  • Ephedrine

  • Psuedoephedrine

  • Phenylpropanolamine


Indirect acting sympathomimetics
Indirect-acting Sympathomimetics inhalation anesthetics

  • Amphetamine

  • Cocaine

  • Monoamine oxidase inhibitors


Direct acting sympathomimetics

Alpha-1 selective agonists inhalation anesthetics

Phenylephrine

Methoxamine

Beta-2 selective agonists

Albuterol

Terbutaline

Metaproterenol

Direct-acting Sympathomimetics


Continuous use causes tachyphylaxis
Continuous use causes tachyphylaxis inhalation anesthetics

  • Ephedrine


Non catecholamine used for urinary incontinence
Non catecholamine used for urinary incontinence inhalation anesthetics

  • Phenylpropanolamine


Parasympatholytic used for urinary incontinence
Parasympatholytic used for urinary incontinence inhalation anesthetics

  • Propantheline


Sympatholytic drug used to treat urinary retention
Sympatholytic drug used to treat urinary retention inhalation anesthetics

  • Phenoxybenzamine



Non catecholamines used to treat prevent acute bronchoconstriction
Non catecholamines used to treat & prevent acute bronchoconstriction

  • Beta-2 selective agonists

    • albuterol

    • terbutaline

    • metaproterenol


Sympatholytics

Alpha blockers bronchoconstriction

Phenoxybenzamine

Prazosin

Beta blockers

Propranolol

Timolol

Sotalol

Atenolol

Betaxolol

Sympatholytics


Non selective alpha blocker
Non-selective alpha blocker bronchoconstriction

  • Phenoxybenzamine


Alpha 1 selective blocker
Alpha-1 selective blocker bronchoconstriction

  • Prazosin


Non selective beta blockers
Non-selective beta blockers bronchoconstriction

  • Propranolol

  • Timolol

  • Sotalol


Beta 1 selective blockers
Beta-1 selective blockers bronchoconstriction

  • Atenolol

  • Betaxolol


Alpha 1 beta blocker
Alpha-1 & Beta blocker bronchoconstriction

  • Labetalol


Sympatholytics used to treat supraventricular ventricular tachyarrhythmias
Sympatholytics used to treat supraventricular & ventricular tachyarrhythmias

  • Propranolol

  • Timolol

  • Sotalol


Preferred in patients w bronchial asthma or diabetes mellitus
Preferred in patients w/ bronchial asthma or diabetes mellitus

  • Beta-1 selective blockers

    • Atenolol

    • Betaxolol


3 ways indirect sympatholytics work
3 ways indirect sympatholytics work mellitus

  • inhibit synthesis of norepinephrine

  • inhibit storage of norepinephrine

  • inhibit release of norepinephrine


T or f parasympathomimetics are safe to use systemically
T or F: Parasympathomimetics are safe to use systemically mellitus

  • F--they cause cardiovascular collapse & bronchoconstriction w/ increased secretion


Name 2 physiological causes of glaucoma
Name 2 physiological causes of glaucoma mellitus

  • Increased production of aqueous humor

  • Decreased drainage of aqueous humor



T or f cyclospasm is caused by relaxation of the ciliary muscles
T or F: Cyclospasm is caused by relaxation of the ciliary muscles

  • F--the ciliary muscles contract





What are the muscarinic effects
What are the “muscarinic effects” hypomotility

  • Salivation

  • Lacrimation

  • Urination

  • Defecation


T or f atropine is an effective treatment of bronchial asthma
T or F:Atropine is an effective treatment of bronchial asthma

  • F--atropine only antagonizes 1 of the many causes of bronchial constriction




T or f sympathomimetics have a stimulatory effect on all alpha s
T or F: Sympathomimetics have a stimulatory effect on all alpha’s

  • False--stimulatory on all, except GI & insulin secretion


T or f sympathomimetics have an inhibitory effect on all beta s
T or F: Sympathomimetics have an inhibitory effect on all beta’s

  • F--inhibitory on all, except heart & insulin secretion


T or f epinephrine causes reflex tachycardia
T or F: Epinephrine causes reflex tachycardia beta’s

  • True--a bronchodilator & increases 4 heart parameters (contractility, heart rate, excitability, automaticity)



Muscle relaxants acting on the spinal cord
Muscle relaxants acting on the spinal cord beta’s

  • Methocarbamol

  • Guaifenesin



Depolarizing neuromuscular blocker
Depolarizing neuromuscular blocker beta’s

  • Succinylcholine


Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers

Tubocurarine beta’s

Atracurium

Cisatracurium

Doxacurium

Mivacurium

Metocurine

Pancuronium

Vecuronium

Pipecuronium

Rocuronium

Gallamine

Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers



T or f succinylcholine s duration of action is 10 minutes in all species
T or F: Succinylcholine’s duration of action is <10 minutes in all species

  • F--it is 25+ minutes in dogs



T or f all neuromuscular blockers produce analgesia
T or F: All neuromuscular blockers produce analgesia minutes in all species

  • F--they are QUATs and cannot cross the BBB


Nondepolarizing nm blocker w most rapid onset of action
Nondepolarizing NM blocker w/ most rapid onset of action minutes in all species

  • Rocuronium (1-2 minutes)

  • “rock and roll”



Which nm blockers are eliminated by the li v e r
Which NM blockers are eliminated by the li minutes in all speciesver?

  • Vecuronium

  • Rocuronium


T or F: Drugs eliminated by the kidney minutes in all specieshave longer duration of action than drugs that are eliminated by the liver

  • True


Which nm blocker has the shortest duration of action why
Which NM blocker has the shortest duration of action & why minutes in all species

  • Mivacurium (10-20 minutes)

  • b/c metabolized by plasma cholinesterase





Which 2 nm blockers block muscarinic receptors in the heart cause sympathetic stimulation
Which 2 NM blockers block muscarinic receptors in the heart & cause sympathetic stimulation?

  • Gallamine

  • Pancuronium


Name the steroid derivative nm blockers
Name the steroid derivative NM blockers & cause sympathetic stimulation?

  • Pancuronium

  • Vecuronium

  • Pipecuronium

  • Rocuronium


Which nm blocker causes the release of histamine
Which NM blocker causes the release of histamine? & cause sympathetic stimulation?

  • Tubocurarine


Which nm blockers do not cause the release of histamine
Which NM blockers do not cause the release of histamine? & cause sympathetic stimulation?

  • Pancuronium

  • Vecuronium

  • Rocuronium

  • Pipecuronium

  • Cisatracurium

  • Doxacurium

  • Gallamine


Which nm blocker induces hypotension in dogs
Which NM blocker induces hypotension in dogs? & cause sympathetic stimulation?

  • Tubocurarine


Which nm blockers cause slight in heart rate blood pressure
Which NM blockers cause slight & cause sympathetic stimulation?­ in heart rate & blood pressure?

  • Gallamine

  • Pancuronium


Which nm blocker can cause hyperkalemia
Which NM blocker can cause hyperkalemia? & cause sympathetic stimulation?

  • Succinylcholine


T or f depolarizing nondepolarizing muscle relaxants have significant cns effects
T or F: Depolarizing & nondepolarizing muscle relaxants have significant CNS effects

  • F--they do not cross the BBB b/c they are QUATs


Treatment of succinylcholine toxicity
Treatment of succinylcholine toxicity significant CNS effects

  • Artificial respiration w/ O2

  • Hope & pray


Treatment of nondepolarizing nm toxicity
Treatment of nondepolarizing NM toxicity significant CNS effects

  • Artificial respiration w/ O2

  • Cholinesterase inhibitors (neostigmine)

  • Atropine to block M effects

  • Ca+ salts


T or f succinylcholine can be used when patient has cholinesterase inhibitor toxicity
T or F: Succinylcholine can be used when patient has cholinesterase inhibitor toxicity

  • F--the cholinesterase inhibitor inactivates succinylcholine


Name 6 ways muscle relaxants act

on the brain cholinesterase inhibitor toxicity

on the spinal cord

on the motor neuron

pre-junctional on the NMJ

post-junctional on the NMJ

on the muscle cell

Name 6 ways muscle relaxants act


Means a genetic predisposition to fever w induction of inhalation anesthetics
Means a genetic predisposition to fever w/ induction of inhalation anesthetics

  • Malignant hyperthermia


T or f succinylcholine causes skeletal muscles to relax in this order
T or F: Succinylcholine causes skeletal muscles to relax in this order

  • Face, glottis, intercostals, diaphragm, others

  • True


T or f nondepolarizing nm blockers cause relaxation of muscles in this order
T or F: Nondepolarizing NM blockers cause relaxation of muscles in this order

  • Eyes, face, neck, diaphragm, limbs, chest, abdomen

  • F--diaphragm is last


T or f recovery from muscle relaxants is in the same order that they are affected
T or F: Recovery from muscle relaxants is in the same order that they are affected

  • F--it is in reverse order


What drug causes irreversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase
What drug causes irreversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase? that they are affected

  • Aspirin

  • How?

  • Acetylating its active site



2 drugs that undergo enterohepatic circulation
2 drugs that undergo enterohepatic circulation soluble

  • Naproxen

  • Meclofenamic acid





T or f phenylbutazone causes only induction of enzymes
T or F: Phenylbutazone causes only induction of enzymes caused by NSAIDs

  • F--it induces and inhibits enzymes



T or f acetaminophen is an nsaid
T or F: Acetaminophen is an NSAID caused by NSAIDs

  • F--it does not work on COX and it is not anti-inflammatory


An nsaid must have these 3 properties
An NSAID must have these 3 properties caused by NSAIDs

  • Anti-inflammatory

  • Antipyretic

  • Analgesic




T or F: NSAIDs that are more selective COX-2 inhibitors than COX-1 inhibitors will have less side effects

  • True


Drug of choice for treatment of acetaminophen toxicity
Drug of choice for treatment of acetaminophen toxicity COX-1 inhibitors will have less side effects

  • N-acetylcysteine

    • an anti-oxidant


T or f all are nsaids aspirin etodolac phenylbutazone piroxicam acetaminophen carprofen flunixin
T or F: All are NSAIDs--aspirin, etodolac, phenylbutazone, piroxicam, acetaminophen, carprofen & flunixin

  • F--acetaminophen is not an NSAID


Which nsaids are more selective cox 2 inhibitors
Which NSAIDs are more selective COX-2 inhibitors? piroxicam, acetaminophen, carprofen & flunixin

  • Celexcoxib

  • Deracoxib

  • Carprofen

  • Etodolac


Why does aspirin have such a long t 1 2 in cats
Why does aspirin have such a long T piroxicam, acetaminophen, carprofen & flunixin1/2 in cats?

  • Cats are deficient in glucuronic acid conjugation & cannot metabolize aspirin



Nsaid used as an analgesic for colic in horses
NSAID used as an analgesic for colic in horses faster than carnivores

  • Flunixin






Name 2 anti oxidant nsaids
Name 2 anti-oxidant NSAIDs effects

  • Dimethylsulfoxide (DMSO)

  • Orgotein


Name 2 nsaids given intra articularly as lubricants
Name 2 NSAIDs given intra-articularly as lubricants effects

  • Hyaluronic acid

  • Polysulfated GAG’s


What does an anti oxidant do
What does an anti-oxidant do? effects

  • Scavenges free O2 radicals


Which nsaid has a garlic odor
Which NSAID has a garlic odor? effects

  • Dimethylsulfoxide (DMSO)


Which of the following nsaids are not approved in horses
Which of the following NSAIDs are effectsNOT approved in horses?

  • Aspirin, etodolac, phenylbutazone, meclofenamic acid, ketoprofen, carprofen, naproxen, flunixin, deracoxib

  • Etodolac

  • Carprofen

  • Deracoxib


Cns stimulants
CNS Stimulants effects

  • Doxapram

  • Methylxanthine derivatives

  • Antagonists


Methylxanthine derivatives
Methylxanthine derivatives effects

  • Caffeine

  • Theobromine

  • Theophylline

  • Aminophylline


Antagonists

alpha-2 antagonists effects

Yobimbine

Tolazoline

Atipamezole

4-AP

Antagonists


Used as a respiratory analeptic reverses resp due to inhalation barbiturate anesthesia
Used as a respiratory analeptic, reverses resp effects¯ due to inhalation & barbiturate anesthesia

  • Doxapram


Reversal agent for acepromazine xylazine or neuroleptanalgesics
Reversal agent for acepromazine, xylazine, or neuroleptanalgesics

  • Doxapram



T or f the 1 o mechanism of action of methylxanthine derivatives is inhibition of phosphodiesterase
T or F: The 1 med?o mechanism of action of methylxanthine derivatives is inhibition of phosphodiesterase

  • F--they antagonize presynaptic adenosine receptors to inhibit the release of NE


Methylxanthine derivatives are used to treat these 3 situations
Methylxanthine derivatives are used to treat these 3 situations:

  • Bronchoconstriction

  • Bronchial asthma

  • COPD



T or f methylxanthine derivatives do not cause salivation nausea vomiting
T or F: Methylxanthine derivatives do not cause salivation, nausea, & vomiting

  • F--they do, only because they are alkaloids and irritate the GI tract


T or f the 1 cause of death from methylxanthine derivatives is respiratory failure
T or F: The #1 cause of death from methylxanthine derivatives is respiratory failure

  • True


This drug comes from the plant named nox vomica
This drug comes from the plant named derivatives is respiratory failureNox vomica

  • Strychnine


T or f as a spinal cord stimulant strychnine acts by blocking glycine receptors
T or F: As a spinal cord stimulant, strychnine acts by blocking glycine receptors

  • True--glycine is the main inhibitor of spinal cord pre-synaptics

  • Inhibiting an inhibitor results in stimulation


Drugs used for treatment of strychnine poisoning

Barbiturates: blocking glycine receptors

Pentobarbital in dogs

Thiopental in cats

Diazepam

Xylazine

Methocarbamol

Guaifenesin

Drugs used for treatment of strychnine poisoning


T or f strychnine other alkaloids can be precipitated by an acid drug
T or F: Strychnine & other alkaloids can be precipitated by an acid drug

  • True--but must be given within 2 hours of the OD of alkaloid


List the 7 types of cns ors

Sedatives & hypnotics an acid drug

Tranquilizers (neuroleptics)

alpha-2 agonists

Opioid agonists & antagonists

Neuroleptanalgesics

Anticonvulsants

General anesthetics

List the 7 types of CNS ¯’ors


List the 7 sedatives hypnotics

Barbiturates: an acid drug

Thiopental

Thiamylal

Phenobarbital

Pentobarbital

Non barbiturates:

Chloral hydrate

Propofol

Etomidate

List the 7 sedatives & hypnotics


T or f all of these barbiturates can be used in cats
T or F: All of these barbiturates can be used in cats an acid drug

  • Thiopental, phenobarbital, thiamylal, pentobarbital

  • F--only thiopental


T or f the most likely mechanism of action for barbiturates is that they stimulate gaba
T or F: The most likely mechanism of action for barbiturates is that they stimulate GABA.

  • True--by stimulating an inhibitor, they cause CNS depression


T or f s h s are anesthetics anticonvulsants analgesics
T or F: S & H’s are anesthetics, anticonvulsants, & analgesics

  • F--they are very poor analgesics (& MR’s)


Drug of choice for treatment of acute status epilepticus
Drug of choice for analgesicstreatment of acute status epilepticus

  • Diazepam


Drug of choice for prevention of epileptic seizures
Drug of choice for analgesicsprevention of epileptic seizures

  • Phenobarbital


What is the 1 enemy of s h s how can it be minimized
What is the #1 enemy of S&H’s & how can it be minimized? analgesics

  • Respiratory depression

  • Use other drugs as preanesthetics to ­ the safety margin


T or f cats have a very slow rate of metabolism of all barbiturates so they are seldom used
T or F: Cats have a very slow rate of metabolism of all barbiturates so they are seldom used

  • F--thiopental is used in cats b/c it has an “ultra-short” duration (10 minutes)


Which barbiturates eica s during inhalation anesthesia
Which barbiturates barbiturates so they are seldom used­ EICA’s during inhalation anesthesia?

  • Thiobarbiturates

  • b/c of vagal stimulation





List the species that are sensitive to barbiturates and explain why
List the species that are sensitive to barbiturates and explain why.

  • Cats, birds, fish

  • b/c they are deficient in the oxidative enzymes that metabolize barbiturates


Give the duration of action

Pentobarbital explain why.

2-4 hours

Thiopental

<10 minutes

Phenobarbital

8-24 hours

Give the duration of action



T or f chloral hydrate is a good analgesic and muscle relaxant
T or F: Chloral hydrate is a good analgesic and muscle relaxant

  • F--MgSO4 is given w/ it to potentiate its muscle relaxant effects


Name the 2 major enemies of chloral hydrate
Name the 2 major enemies of chloral hydrate relaxant

  • Respiratory depression

  • CICA (catecholamine-induced cardiac arrythmias)


T or f chloral hydrate is seldom used in all species
T or F: Chloral hydrate is seldom used in all species relaxant

  • F--hypnotic, & preanesthetic in large animals; combined with MgSO4 &/or pentobarbital as an anesthetic

  • Hypnotic & anesthetic in birds & fish


List the 7 types of cns ors1

Sedatives & hypnotics relaxant

Tranquilizers (neuroleptics)

alpha-2 agonists

Opioid agonists & antagonists

Neuroleptanalgesics

Anticonvulsants

General anesthetics

List the 7 types of CNS ¯’ors


Name 3 classes of neuroleptics
Name 3 classes of neuroleptics relaxant

  • Phenothiazine derivatives

  • Butyrophenone derivatives

  • Benzodiazepine derivatives


Phenothiazine derivatives
Phenothiazine derivatives relaxant

  • Acepromazine

  • Chlorpromazine

  • Prochlorperazine

  • Promethazine

  • Trimeprazine


Most common phenothiazine
Most common phenothiazine relaxant

  • Acepromazine


Name 3 phenothiazines used as anti emetics
Name 3 phenothiazines used as anti-emetics relaxant

  • Chlorpromazine

  • Prochlorperazine

  • Promethazine


Name 2 phenothiazines used as anti histamines
Name 2 phenothiazines used as anti-histamines relaxant

  • Promethazine

  • Trimeprazine


Name 3 phenothiazines used for motion sickness
Name 3 phenothiazines used for motion sickness relaxant

  • Promethazine

  • Trimeprazine

  • Acepromazine


T or f promethazine is used as an anti emetic antihistamine for motion sickness
T or F: Promethazine is used as an anti-emetic, antihistamine, & for motion sickness

  • True



M of a of phenothiazines
M of A of phenothiazines motion sickness

  • Competitive antagonists on dopamine excitatory receptors in the CNS


T or f phenothiazines are analgesics as well as sedatives
T or F: Phenothiazines are analgesics as well as sedatives motion sickness

  • F--they do not cause analgesia


T or f phenothiazines cause little respiratory at therapeutic doses
T or F: Phenothiazines cause little respiratory motion sickness¯ at therapeutic doses

  • True--that is why they are preferred as preanesthetics


T or f phenothiazines prevent eica s during inhalation anesthesia
T or F: Phenothiazines prevent EICA’s during inhalation anesthesia

  • True--they have a beta-1 blocking action that causes bradycardia as well as directly depressing the myocardium


T or f phenothiazines have both a and b1 blocking actions
T or F: Phenothiazines have both anesthesiaa- and b1- blocking actions

  • True--they cause vasodilation and bradycardia



T or f phenothiazines also act as nondepolarizing mr s weak antispasmodics antihistamines
T or F: Phenothiazines also act as nondepolarizing MR’s, weak antispasmodics, & antihistamines

  • True


Name 6 common uses of phenothiazines

Preanesthetics weak antispasmodics, & antihistamines

Tranquilizers

Chemical restraint

Antiemetics

Antihistamines

Motion sickness

Name 6 common uses of phenothiazines


Name the 3 butyrophenones
Name the 3 butyrophenones weak antispasmodics, & antihistamines

  • Haloperidol

  • Droperidol

  • Azaperone


T or f butyrophenones are antihistamines anti motion sickness drugs
T or F: Butyrophenones are antihistamines & anti motion sickness drugs

  • F--otherwise, they are very similar to the phenothiazines


T or f butyrophenones generally have less side effects than phenothiazines
T or F: Butyrophenones generally have less side effects than phenothiazines

  • T--more potent tranquilizers & antiemetics

  • also, less potent hypotensive & hypothermic


Name the 7 benzodiazepines

Diazepam phenothiazines

Oxazepam

Clonazepam

Clorazepate

Midazolam

Zolazepam

Lorazepam

Name the 7 Benzodiazepines


M of a for benzodiazepines
M of A for Benzodiazepines phenothiazines

  • Enhance GABA binding & open Cl- channels to ¯ the CNS


Specific antidote for benzodiazepines
Specific antidote for benzodiazepines phenothiazines

  • Flumazenil

  • Competitive pharmacological antagonist




T or F: Benzodiazepines have greater effects on respiration and the CV than do phenothiazines & butyrophenones

  • F--they have insignificant effects on respiration and minimal CV effects


T or f benzodiazepines should not be used long term
T or F: Benzodiazepines should not be used long-term and the CV than do phenothiazines & butyrophenones

  • True--they are metabolized to active metabolites (enzyme inducers) and therefore produce tolerance


Which benzodiazepines are used as appetite stimulants
Which benzodiazepines are used as appetite stimulants? and the CV than do phenothiazines & butyrophenones

  • Diazepam

  • Oxazepam


Drug of choice for treatment of acute status epilepticus1
Drug of choice for treatment of acute status epilepticus? and the CV than do phenothiazines & butyrophenones

  • Diazepam


Drug of choice for prevention of epileptic siezures
Drug of choice for prevention of epileptic siezures and the CV than do phenothiazines & butyrophenones

  • Phenobarbital


T or f benzodiazepines are hepatotoxic in cats
T or F: Benzodiazepines are hepatotoxic in cats and the CV than do phenothiazines & butyrophenones

  • True--b/c the carrier, propylene glycol, is a toxin


T or f benzodiazepines are used for all of the following
T or F: Benzodiazepines are used for all of the following: and the CV than do phenothiazines & butyrophenones

  • Behavioral modifiers, anticonvulsants, preanesthetics, neuroleptanalgesia, appetite stimulants, & chemical restraint

  • True


T or f benzodiazepines are also used for all of the following
T or F: Benzodiazepines are also used for all of the following:

  • Anti-emetic, anti-histamine, anti-motion sickness, & prolactinemia

  • F--phenothiazines are used for that


List the 7 types of cns ors2

Sedatives & hypnotics following:

Tranquilizers (neuroleptics)

alpha-2 agonists

Opioid agonists & antagonists

Neuroleptanalgesics

Anticonvulsants

General anesthetics

List the 7 types of CNS ¯’ors


Name 3 a 2 adrenergic agonists
Name 3 following:a-2 adrenergic agonists

  • Xylazine

  • Detomidine

  • Medetomidine






Specific antidote for medetomidine
Specific antidote for medetomidine following:

  • Atipamezole


T or f reversal agent means the same thing as specific antidote
T or F: Reversal agent means the same thing as specific antidote

  • F--reversal agent works on only one effect to bring it back to normal; while a specific antidote reverses all the effects of the drug


T or f xylazine s the cns by stimulating pre synaptic central a 2 adrenergic receptors
T or F: Xylazine antidote¯’s the CNS by stimulating pre-synaptic central a-2 adrenergic receptors

  • True--results in an inhibition of NE and dopamine release


List the following species in order of decreasing sensitivity to xylazine
List the following species in order of decreasing sensitivity to xylazine:

  • Swine; cattle; goats; horses, dogs, & cats

  • Goats

  • Cattle

  • Horses, dogs, cats

  • Swine



T or f xylazine causes bradycardia incomplete av block
T or F: Xylazine causes bradycardia & incomplete AV block emetic

  • True--antagonized by atropine



T or f xylazine should not be used in pregnant cattle or sheep
T or F: Xylazine should not be used in pregnant cattle or sheep

  • True--causes myometrial contractions


T or f xylazine is a cns
T or F: Xylazine is a CNS sheep­

  • True--only at high doses


Which a 2 agonist does not cause abortion in cattle
Which sheepa-2 agonist does not cause abortion in cattle?

  • Detomidine


List the 3 a 2 agonists in order of decreasing potency
List the 3 sheepa-2 agonists in order of decreasing potency

  • Medetomidine

  • Detomidine

  • Xylazine


T or f detomidine is approved only in dogs and medetomidine is approved only in horses
T or F: Detomidine is approved only in dogs, and medetomidine is approved only in horses

  • F--other way around


T or f medetomidine is safe to use in cats
T or F: Medetomidine is safe to use in cats medetomidine is approved only in horses

  • F--causes respiratory ¯


Name the antagonist

Xylazine--CNS medetomidine is approved only in horses

yohimbine (tolazoline)

Detomidine--CV

atropine

Medetomidine--CV

atipamezole

Detomidine--CNS

tolazoline (yohimbine)

Medetomidine--CNS

atipamezole

Xylazine--CV

atropine

Name the antagonist


List the 7 types of cns ors3

Sedatives & hypnotics medetomidine is approved only in horses

Tranquilizers (neuroleptics)

alpha-2 agonists

Opioid agonists & antagonists

Neuroleptanalgesics

Anticonvulsants

General anesthetics

List the 7 types of CNS ¯’ors


Name the 4 classes of opioid agonists antagonists
Name the 4 classes of Opioid agonists & antagonists medetomidine is approved only in horses

  • Opioid agonists

  • Mixed agonist-antagonist

  • Partial agonist

  • Pure opioid receptor antagonist


Name the 6 opioid agonists

Morphine medetomidine is approved only in horses

Codeine

Meperidine

Oxymorphone

Fentanyl

Carfentanil

Name the 6 Opioid agonists


List the 9 opioids in decreasing order of analgesic potency

Carfentanil (10,000) medetomidine is approved only in horses

Fentanyl (50-100)

Buprenorphine (30-100)

Oxymorphone (10)

Butorphanol (5)

Morphine

Codeine

Meperidine Pentazocine

List the 9 Opioids in decreasing order of analgesic potency




T or f opioids cause cns in all species
T or F: Opioids cause CNS opioids?¯ in all species

  • F--not in cats, horses, ruminants, & pigs; actually, only in dogs, humans and NHP’s


T or f morphine is an emetic and an antitussive
T or F: Morphine is an emetic and an antitussive opioids?

  • F--emetic in dogs only at small to moderate doses; large doses depress the emetic center


T or F: Morphine stimulates respiration, reflex tachycardia, ­IOP, histamine release,& death from respiratory failure

  • True


T or f all of the following are uses of opioids in general
T or F: All of the following are uses of opioids in general:

  • Analgesics, preanesthetics, antidiarrheals, neuroleptanalgesics, & antitussives

  • True


Which of the following is the best antitussive
Which of the following is the best antitussive?

  • Butorphanol, codeine, dextromethorphan, loperamide, diphenoxylate, tincture of opium

  • Dextromethorphan


Which of the following is the best antidiarrheal
Which of the following is the best antidiarrheal?

  • Loperamide, diphenoxylate, tincture of opium, dextromethorphan, or codeine

  • Loperamide



T or f codeine is a less potent analgesic than morphine
T or F: Codeine is a less potent analgesic than morphine

  • True--carfentanil < fentanyl < buprenorphine < oxymorphone < butorphanol < morphine < codeine < meperidine = pentazocine


T or f codeine is used as an antitussive analgesic antidiarrheal antihistamine
T or F: Codeine is used as an antitussive, analgesic, antidiarrheal, & antihistamine

  • F--it can cause histamine release


T or f meperidine is less potent than morphine as an analgesic
T or F: Meperidine is less potent than morphine as an analgesic

  • True--carfentanil < fentanyl < buprenorphine < oxymorphone < butorphanol < morphine < codeine < meperidine = pentazocine


T or f oxymorphone is a more potent analgesic than morphine
T or F: Oxymorphone is a more potent analgesic than morphine analgesic

  • True--carfentanil < fentanyl < buprenorphine < oxymorphone < butorphanol < morphine < codeine < meperidine = pentazocine


T or f fentanyl is 10 4 times more potent than morphine
T or F: Fentanyl is 10 analgesic4 times more potent than morphine

  • False--it is only 50-100 times more potent


T or f carfentanil is 10 4 times more potent than morphine
T or F: Carfentanil is 10 analgesic4 times more potent than morphine

  • True



Specific antidote for carfentanil
Specific antidote for carfentanil analgesic

  • Diprenorphine


Name 2 mixed agonist antagonist opioids
Name 2 mixed agonist-antagonist opioids analgesic

  • Butorphanol

  • Pentazocine


T or f butorphanol has minimal cv effects at therapeutic doses
T or F: Butorphanol has minimal CV effects at therapeutic doses

  • True--makes it a useful analgesic


T or f pentazocine is used for its sedative effect usually
T or F: Pentazocine is used for its sedative effect usually doses

  • False--it has less sedative effects than other opioids; used as an analgesic


Name 2 partial opioid agonists
Name 2 partial opioid agonists doses

  • Buprenorphine

  • Nalorphine


T or f buprenorphine acts as both a partial agonist and as an antagonist
T or F: Buprenorphine acts as both a partial agonist and as an antagonist

  • True--partial agonist at low doses; antagonist at high doses


Drug used to treat buprenorphine toxicity
Drug used to treat buprenorphine toxicity an antagonist

  • Doxapram--need to use a drug that will kick it out of the opioid receptors rather than just competing for the receptors as an opioid antagonist such as naloxone would do


Name 3 opioid antagonists
Name 3 opioid antagonists an antagonist

  • Naloxone

  • Naltrexone

  • Diprenorphine


T or f naloxone reverses respiratory cns of opioids hypovolemic shock emetic effect of apomorphine
T or F: Naloxone reverses respiratory & CNS an antagonist¯ of opioids, hypovolemic shock, & emetic effect of apomorphine

  • F--does not reverse the emetic effect of apomorphine (works on opioid receptors, not excitatory receptors) in dogs




List the 7 types of cns ors4

Sedatives & hypnotics dogs & cats

Tranquilizers (neuroleptics)

alpha-2 agonists

Opioid agonists & antagonists

Neuroleptanalgesics

Anticonvulsants

General anesthetics

List the 7 types of CNS ¯’ors


Give 3 examples of neuroleptanalgesics
Give 3 examples of neuroleptanalgesics dogs & cats

  • Droperidol-fentanyl

  • Acepromazine-oxymorphone

  • Diazepam-oxymorphone


What is the big positive to using neuroleptanalgesics
What is the big positive to using neuroleptanalgesics? dogs & cats

  • They have a synergistic effect, which means that less of each drug needs to be used in the patient


T or f neuroleptanalgesics do not cause a complete loss of consciousness
T or F: Neuroleptanalgesics do not cause a complete loss of consciousness

  • True--can remedy by using a low dose of pentobarbital as preanesthetic


Which breed of dogs can be resistant to the neuroleptanalgesic effect of droperidol fentanyl
Which breed of dogs can be resistant to the neuroleptanalgesic effect of droperidol-fentanyl?

  • Australian terriers--but they are sensitive to the adverse effects


What drug is given as a preanesthetic to the vagal stimulation due to fentanyl
What drug is given as a preanesthetic to neuroleptanalgesic effect of droperidol-fentanyl?¯ the vagal stimulation due to fentanyl?

  • Atropine


Name the antidote for droperidol fentanyl
Name the antidote for droperidol-fentanyl neuroleptanalgesic effect of droperidol-fentanyl?

  • The combination of 4-AP & naloxone IV

  • 4-AP reverses droperidol

  • Nalozone reverses fentanyl


List the 7 types of cns ors5

Sedatives & hypnotics neuroleptanalgesic effect of droperidol-fentanyl?

Tranquilizers (neuroleptics)

alpha-2 agonists

Opioid agonists & antagonists

Neuroleptanalgesics

Anticonvulsants

General anesthetics

List the 7 types of CNS ¯’ors


List 5 anticonvulsant drugs

Phenobarbital neuroleptanalgesic effect of droperidol-fentanyl?

Primidone

Phenytoin

Potassium bromide

Benzodiazepines:

Diazepam

Clonazepam

Clorazepate

List 5 anticonvulsant drugs


T or f phenobarbital s seizure activity by enhancing gaba binding
T or F: Phenobarbital neuroleptanalgesic effect of droperidol-fentanyl?¯’s seizure activity by enhancing GABA binding

  • True--it depresses the motor cortex & raises the threshold for seizure activity


Drug of choice for prevention of epileptic seizures1
Drug of choice for neuroleptanalgesic effect of droperidol-fentanyl?prevention of epileptic seizures

  • Phenobarbital

  • b/c of its efficacy, safety, and pharmacokinetics






Another drug given iv to treat status epilepticus but develops tolerance rapidly
Another drug given IV to treat status epilepticus, but develops tolerance rapidly

  • Clonazepam


Used as an adjunctive antiepileptic w phenobarbital b c its tolerance is not as rapid as diazepam
Used as an adjunctive antiepileptic w/ phenobarbital b/c its tolerance is not as rapid as diazepam

  • Clorazepate


Drug used in behavior disorders
Drug used in behavior disorders tolerance is not as rapid as diazepam

  • Clorazepate


Name the 3 anticonvulsants that are not used in cats
Name the 3 anticonvulsants that are not used in cats tolerance is not as rapid as diazepam

  • Primidone

  • Phenytoin

  • Potassium bromide

  • remember the 3 P’s--potentiate problems in ‘puddy tats’


Drugs mainly used as adjunctives in dogs that have developed toxicity or not responded to phenobarbital or primidone

  • Phenytoin

  • Potassium bromide


Anticonvulsant that is also used to teat digitalis induced ventricular tachyarrhythmias
Anticonvulsant that is also used to teat digitalis-induced ventricular tachyarrhythmias

  • Phenytoin


The only anticonvulsant that is not hepatotoxic
The only anticonvulsant that is not hepatotoxic ventricular tachyarrhythmias

  • Potassium bromide


Treatment of choice for acute toxicity of potassium bromide
Treatment of choice for acute toxicity of potassium bromide ventricular tachyarrhythmias

  • Normal saline


Drugs contraindicated in epileptic animals

Cause CNS excitement & seizures: ventricular tachyarrhythmias

Phenothiazines

Butyrophenones

Xylazine

Opioid analgesics

Methylxanthines

Ketamine

Cross BBB/ very lipid soluble:

Corticosteroids

Chloramphenicol

Fluoroquinolones

Dopamine antagonist:

Metoclopramide

Drugs contraindicated in epileptic animals


List the 7 types of cns ors6

Sedatives & hypnotics ventricular tachyarrhythmias

Tranquilizers (neuroleptics)

alpha-2 agonists

Opioid agonists & antagonists

Neuroleptanalgesics

Anticonvulsants

General anesthetics

List the 7 types of CNS ¯’ors


Means loss of sensation
Means loss of sensation ventricular tachyarrhythmias

  • Anesthesia


Means loss of sensation loss of consciousness and amnesia
Means loss of sensation, loss of consciousness, and amnesia ventricular tachyarrhythmias

  • General anesthesia


Means unaware of the surroundings
Means “unaware of the surroundings” ventricular tachyarrhythmias

  • Dissociative anesthesia


The inability to coordinate motor activity
The inability to coordinate motor activity ventricular tachyarrhythmias

  • Ataxia


Name the clinical stages of anesthesia
Name the clinical stages of anesthesia ventricular tachyarrhythmias

  • Stage I

  • Stage II

  • Stage III

  • Stage IV


Voluntary excitement consciousness analgesia
Voluntary excitement, consciousness, analgesia ventricular tachyarrhythmias

  • Stage I anesthesia


Involuntary excitement loss of consciousness voluntary control signs of cns
Involuntary excitement, loss of consciousness & voluntary control, signs of CNS ­

  • Stage II anesthesia


Stage i stage ii
Stage I + Stage II = ? control, signs of CNS

  • Induction


Loss of consciousness pain sensation neuromuscular reflexes and muscle tone
Loss of consciousness, pain sensation, neuromuscular reflexes, and muscle tone

  • Stage III (aka ‘surgical anesthesia’)


Plane 1 plane 2 of stage iii
Plane 1 + Plane 2 of Stage III = ? reflexes, and muscle tone

  • Light anesthesia


Plane 3 plane 4 of stage iii
Plane 3 + Plane 4 of Stage III = ? reflexes, and muscle tone

  • Deep or surgical anesthesia



Name the 4 components of balanced anesthesia
Name the 4 components of balanced anesthesia occurs

  • Sensory blockade

  • Motor blockade

  • Mental blockade

  • Reflex blockade


Means the administration of drugs shortly before administration of the general anesthetic
Means the administration of drugs shortly before administration of the general anesthetic

  • Preanesthetic


Name the major reason for giving preanesthetics
Name the major reason for giving preanesthetics administration of the general anesthetic

  • To reduce the amount of the general anesthetic


Name 4 factors affecting the concentration of the anesthetic in the brain
Name 4 factors affecting the concentration of the anesthetic in the brain

  • Concentration of the anesthetic in arterial blood

  • Cerebral blood flow

  • Movement of the anesthetic to other tissues

  • Lipid solubility of the anesthetic


T or f you want the inhalation anesthetic to be soluble in blood
T or F: You want the inhalation anesthetic to be soluble in blood

  • F--if it’s in the blood, it’s not affecting the brain


T or f the lower the blood gas partition coefficient the faster the induction recovery
T or F: The lower the blood/gas partition coefficient, the faster the induction & recovery

  • True--means less of the gas is in the blood so more is able to affect the brain at a given concentration of anesthetic


Desflurane faster the induction & recovery

Nitrous oxide

Sevoflurane

Isoflurane

Enflurane

Halothane

Methoxyflurane

Doc

Never

Said,

“It’s

Easy.”

He

Managed.

List the inhalation anesthetics from fastest to slowest based on the blood/gas partition coefficient


T or f the lower the oil gas partition coefficient the faster the induction recovery
T or F: The lower the oil/gas partition coefficient, the faster the induction & recovery

  • True--means less gas in the body tissues so more is able to affect the brain at a given concentration of anesthetic


Means the minimum alveolar concentration of an anesthetic that causes immobilization in 50% of animals exposed to a standard painful stimulus

  • MAC


T or f a drug with a lower mac is more potent than one with a higher mac
T or F: A drug with a lower MAC is more potent than one with a higher MAC.

  • True--a drug with low MAC means that you can use less drug to get the desired affects=>more potent


List the inhalation anesthetics in decreasing order of potency

Methoxyflurane a higher MAC.

Halothane

Isoflurane

Enflurane

Sevoflurane

Desflurane

Nitrous oxide

My

Heart

Is

Even

Sensing

Depression

Now

List the inhalation anesthetics in decreasing order of potency


List the inhalation anesthetics in decreasing order of biotransformation

Methoxyflurane a higher MAC.

Halothane

Sevoflurane

Enflurane

Isoflurane

Desflurane

Nitrous oxide

Most

Hospitals

Serve

Emergencies

In

Dire

Need

List the inhalation anesthetics in decreasing order of biotransformation




Has an analgesic effect during recovery
Has an analgesic effect during recovery a higher MAC.

  • Methoxyflurane



T or f some of the inhalation anesthetics also cause mr hypotension respiratory
T or F: Some of the inhalation anesthetics also cause MR, hypotension, & respiratory ¯

  • True--they potentiate the effects of nondepolarizing MR’s

  • listed from most to least:

  • Enflurane Even

  • Isoflurane I

  • Methoxyflurane Miss

  • Halothane Home


Depresses the sensitivity of the baroreceptors
Depresses the sensitivity of the baroreceptors hypotension, & respiratory

  • Halothane


T or f myocardial sensitizes the myocardium to cica s
T or F: Myocardial hypotension, & respiratory ¯ sensitizes the myocardium to CICA’s

  • True


List in decreasing order of ability to cause cica s

Halothane hypotension, & respiratory

Methoxyflurane

Enflurane

Isoflurane

Halo

May

Excite

Individuals

List in decreasing order of ability to cause CICA’s


Drugs that cardiac arrythmias

alpha-2 agonists hypotension, & respiratory

xylazine

detomidine

medetomidine

Thiobarbiturates

thiamylal

thiopental

Exogenous beta-1 agonists

epinephrine

norepinephrine

isoproterenol

Succinylcholine

Vagal stimulation

Drugs that ­ cardiac arrythmias


Drugs that cardiac arrythmias1
Drugs that hypotension, & respiratory ¯ cardiac arrythmias

  • beta-1 blockers

    • phenothiazines

    • butyrophenones

  • Droperidol-fentanyl

  • Lidocaine

  • Deeper anesthesia


T or f inhalation anesthetics may cause malignant hyperthermia
T or F: Inhalation anesthetics may cause malignant hyperthermia

  • True--especially halothane



Hepatotoxic inhalation anesthetics
Hepatotoxic inhalation anesthetics hyperthermia

  • Halothane

  • Methoxyflurane

  • Sevoflurane--metabolized in liver, but not toxic


Nephrotoxic inhalation anesthetics
Nephrotoxic inhalation anesthetics hyperthermia

  • Methoxyflurane

  • Enflurane


Not a potent inhalation anesthetic often used as anesthetic adjuvant analgesic but poor mr
Not a potent inhalation anesthetic, often used as anesthetic adjuvant; analgesic, but poor MR

  • Nitrous oxide


Name the injectable anesthetics

Barbiturates adjuvant; analgesic, but poor MR

thiamylal

thiopental

pentobarbital

Chloral hydrate

Propofol

Etomidate

Dissociative anesthetics

ketamine

tiletamine

Name the injectable anesthetics


The only milky white drug that can be put in a vein
The only milky-white drug that can be put in a vein adjuvant; analgesic, but poor MR

  • Propofol


T or f propofol enhances gaba effects s icp iop is antiemetic but a poor analgesic
T or F: Propofol enhances GABA effects, adjuvant; analgesic, but poor MR¯’s ICP & IOP, & is antiemetic, but a poor analgesic

  • True


T or f although propofol produces minimal cardiac it can eica s
T or F: Although propofol produces minimal cardiac adjuvant; analgesic, but poor MR¯, it can ­ EICA’s

  • True


Because propofol is metabolized by conjugation to glucuronic acid, what species should it not be used in?

  • Cats


Injectable anesthetic that also inhibits the adrenal cortex
Injectable anesthetic that also inhibits the adrenal cortex acid, what species should it not be used in?

  • Etomidate


Name the dissociative anesthetics
Name the dissociative anesthetics acid, what species should it not be used in?

  • Ketamine

  • Tiletamine


T or f ketamine works by noncompetitively antagonizing nmda receptors
T or F: Ketamine works by noncompetitively antagonizing NMDA receptors

  • True--by antagonizing the receptors responsible for the development of abnormal pain, ketamine produces analgesia and anesthesia



T or f ketamine does not cause complete loss of consciousness reflexes are maintained
T or F: Ketamine does not cause complete loss of consciousness, & reflexes are maintained

  • True



Partial antagonist of im ketamine in cats
Partial antagonist of IM ketamine in cats chemical restraint

  • 4-AP & yohimbine given IV



Telazol is the combination of which 2 drugs
Telazol is the combination of which 2 drugs? chemical restraint

  • Tiletamine + zolazepam


T or f a muscle relaxant is generally given with tiletamine zolazepam
T or F: A muscle relaxant is generally given with tiletamine-zolazepam

  • F--the zolazepam provides the MR effect


End of pharmacology i

END tiletamine-zolazepamOF PHARMACOLOGY I!!!


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