Doctors Dilemma
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Doctors Dilemma MD ACP Scientific Meeting February 10, 2007 Final Heat. Single Jeopardy. Double Jeopardy. Final Jeopardy. Date. SINGLE Jeopardy. Critical Care. GI. Nephrology. Radiology. Endocrine. 100. 100. 100. 100. 100. 200. 200. 200. 200. 200. 300. 300. 300. 300.

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Date

Doctors Dilemma

MD ACP Scientific Meeting

February 10, 2007

Final Heat

Single

Jeopardy

Double

Jeopardy

Final

Jeopardy

Date


Date

SINGLE Jeopardy

Critical Care

GI

Nephrology

Radiology

Endocrine

100

100

100

100

100

200

200

200

200

200

300

300

300

300

300

400

400

400

400

400

500

500

500

500

500

Final

Jeopardy

Double

Jeopardy


Date

Critical Care 100Q

This Pressor has effects on the alpha-adrenergic system only.

Question

Critical Care

100


Critical care 100a

Critical Care 100A

What is Neosynephrine or Phenylephrine?

Go To Single

Quizitor

Answer

Critical Care

100


Critical care 200q

Critical Care 200Q

Acute lung injury is defined by this Pao2/Fio2 ratio.

Critical Care

Question

200


Critical care 200a

Critical Care 200A

What is 200-300?

Go To Single

Quizitor

Critical Care

Answer

200


Critical care 300q

Critical Care 300Q

Below this negative inspiratory force (NIF) is a criteria for intubation in neuromuscular disorders.

Critical Care

Question

300


Critical care 300a

Critical Care 300A

What is 20?

Go To Single

Quizitor

Critical Care

Answer

300


Critical care 400q

Critical Care 400Q

This substance, released by mast cells, may be measured when the diagnosis of anaphylaxis is uncertain.

Critical Care

Question

400


Critical care 400a

Critical Care 400A

What is Tryptase?

Go To Single

Quizitor

Critical Care

Answer

400


Critical care 500q

Critical Care 500Q

The PROWESS, ENHANCE, and MERCURY trials were designed to study the safety and efficacy of this medication.

Critical Care

Question

500


Critical care 500a

Critical Care 500A

What is Xigris or Drotrecogin Alpha?

Go To Single

Quizitor

Critical Care

Answer

500


Gi 100q

GI 100Q

Name the preferred therapy and duration for eradication of H. Pylori in penicillin allergic patients.

GI

100

Question


Gi 100a

GI 100A

What is a proton pump inhibitor, Clarithromycin 500mg BID, and Metronidazole 500mg BID for two weeks?

Go To Single

Quizitor

GI

100

Answer


Gi 200q

GI 200Q

The most frequent cause of esophageal infection in persons of all risk categories including the normal host.

GI

200

Question


Gi 200a

GI 200A

What is Candida Albicans?

Go To Single

Quizitor

GI

200

Answer


Gi 300q

GI 300Q

The Mayo End-Stage Liver Disease (MELD) score is a marker of disease severity and mortality in persons with chronic alcohol liver disease. Name the three variables that are required to calculate this score.

GI

300

Question


Gi 300a

GI 300A

What are Total Bilirubin, INR, and Creatinine?

Go To Single

Quizitor

GI

300

Answer


Gi 400q

GI 400Q

Name the syndrome that is an uncommon complication of cholelithiasis that is caused by an impacted stone in either they cystic duct or the neck of the gallbladder.

GI

400

Question


Gi 400a

GI 400A

What is Mirizzi’s Syndrome?

Go To Single

Quizitor

GI

400

Answer


Gi 500q

GI 500Q

Name the hepatotoxic mushroom that when injested, can cause fulminant hepatic failure.

GI

500

Question


Gi 500a

GI 500A

What is Amanita Phalloides?

Go To Single

Quizitor

GI

500

Answer


Date

Nephrology 100Q

The most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in African American Adults.

Nephrology

Question

100


Nephrology 100a

Nephrology 100A

What is Focal Segmental Glomerular Sclerosis (FSGS)?

Go To Single

Quizitor

Nephrology

Answer

100


Date

Nephrology 200Q

The “nickname” for the dysmorphic RBC’s in a urine analysis with glomerulonephritis.

Question

Nephrology

200


Nephrology 200a

Nephrology 200A

What are Mickey Mouse Cells?

Go To Single

Quizitor

Nephrology

Answer

200


Date

Nephrology 300Q

A patient with analgesic nephropathy with persistent hematuria should be evaluated by urine cytology for this condition.

Nephrology

Question

300


Nephrology 300a

Nephrology 300A

What is Transitional Cell Carinoma of the urinary tract?

Go To Single

Quizitor

Nephrology

Answer

300


Date

Nephrology 400Q

A footprint for the diagnosis of cryoglobinemia in the setting of glomerulopathy is suggested by these complement levels.

Nephrology

Question

400


Nephrology 400a

Nephrology 400A

What are low C4 and Normal or Low C3 levels?

Go To Single

Quizitor

Nephrology

Answer

400


Nephrology 500q

Nephrology 500Q

Name the two non-renal conditions that may increase Cystatin C levels.

Nephrology

Question

500


Nephrology 500a

Nephrology 500A

What are thyroid diorders and use of dexamethasone?

Go To Single

Quizitor

Nephrology

Answer

500


Date

Radiology 100Q

Stricture of the sigmoid colon due to carcinoma as seen here is called..

100

Question

Radiology


Radiology 100a

Radiology 100A

What is an Apple Core Lesion?

Go To Single

Quizitor

Radiology

100

Answer


Radiology 200q

Radiology 200Q

These aneurysms are saccular intracranial aneurysms that are congenital and characteristically occur at points where arteries bifurcate.

Radiology

200

Question


Radiology 200a

Radiology 200A

What are Berry Aneurysms?

Go To Single

Quizitor

Radiology

200

Answer


Date

Radiology 300Q

This sign refers to an abnormally shaped fetal head seen at antenatal ultrasound performed during the second trimester. This sign is a marker for open spina bifida.

Radiology

300

Question


Radiology 300a

Radiology 300A

What is LEMON sign?

The cranial vault appears lemon-shaped in axial cross section because the frontal bones are flattened or concave

Go To Single

Quizitor

Radiology

300

Answer


Radiology 400q

Radiology 400Q

This refers to the clinical and radiologic appearance of diffuse fusiform swelling of a digit due to soft-tissue inflammation from underlying arthritis or dactylitis.

Radiology

400

Question


Radiology 400a

Radiology 400A

What is Sausage Digit?

Go To Single

Quizitor

Radiology

400

Answer


Radiology 500q

Radiology 500Q

This type of calcification of the mediastinal and Hilar Lymph nodes occurs in silicosis.

Radiology

500

Question


Radiology 500a

Radiology 500A

What is Egg Shell Calcification?

Go To Single

Quizitor

Radiology

500

Answer


Endocrine 100q

Endocrine 100Q

The acronym UKPDS stands for…

Endocrine

Question

100


Endocrine 100a

Endocrine 100A

What is the United Kingdom Prospective Diabetes Study?

Go To Single

Quizitor

Endocrine

Answer

100


Date

Endocrine 200Q

The most common cause of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH).

Endocrine

Question

200


Endocrine 200a

Endocrine 200A

What is CYP21A2 (21-hydroxylase) deficiency?

Go To Single

Quizitor

Endocrine

Answer

200


Endocrine 300q

Endocrine 300Q

The drug treatment for idiopathic hypercalciuria.

Endocrine

Question

300


Endocrine 300a

Endocrine 300A

What are thiazide diuretics?

Go To Single

Quizitor

Endocrine

Answer

300


Endocrine 400q

Endocrine 400Q

Name three causes for Pseudocushing’s Syndrome.

Endocrine

Question

400


Endocrine 400a

Endocrine 400A

  • Obesity

  • Severe Depression

  • Severe Physical Stress (ie: Sepsis)

  • Chronic Alcoholism

Go To Single

Quizitor

Endocrine

Answer

400


Endocrine 500q

Endocrine 500Q

What is the most common side effect of Exenatide?

Endocrine

Question

500


Endocrine 500a

Endocrine 500A

What is Nausea?

Go To Single

Quizitor

Endocrine

Answer

500


Date

DOUBLE Jeopardy

Syndromes

Preventative

Medicine

Calculator Brain

In The

News

General Internal Medicine

200

200

200

200

200

400

400

400

400

400

600

600

600

600

600

800

800

800

800

800

1000

1000

1000

1000

1000

Final

Jeopardy


Syndromes 200q

Syndromes 200Q

Loss of tactile sense, vibration sense, and limb position sense on the ipsilateral side and loss of pain and temperature sense on the contralateral side.

Syndromes

Question

200


Syndromes 200a

Syndromes 200A

What is Brown-Sequard Syndrome?

Go To Double

Quizitor

Syndromes

Answer

200


Date

Syndromes 400Q

Hydrocephalus resulting from failure of the foramina of Luschka and Majendie to open. It is associated with an occipital meningocele and agenesis of the cerebellar vermis and splenism of the corpus callosum.

Syndromes

Question

400


Syndromes 400a

Syndromes 400A

What is Dandy-Walker Syndrome?

Go To Double

Quizitor

Syndromes

Answer

400


Date

Syndromes 600Q

Aortoiliac occlusive disease producing distal ischemic symptoms and signs. For example, in a pulseless artery, one would experience claudication of the buttocks, impotence, and atrophy of the buttocks.

Syndromes

Question

600


Syndromes 600a

Syndromes 600A

What is Leriche’s Syndrome?

Go To Double

Quizitor

Syndromes

Answer

600


Date

Syndromes 800Q

This syndrome involves the four cranial nerves (IX-XII), and clinically manifests as Horner’s syndrome and paralysis of the soft palate, pharynx, and vocal cords. It has been associated with a tumor in the posterior retroparotid space.

Syndromes

Question

800


Syndromes 800a

Syndromes 800A

What is Villaret’s Syndrome?

Go To Double

Quizitor

Syndromes

Answer

800


Date

Syndromes 1000Q

This syndrome entails an anomalous origin of the left coronary artery from the pulmonary artery, and generally presents in infancy with myocardial ischemia and CHF.

Syndromes

Question

1000


Syndromes 1000a

Syndromes 1000A

What is Bland-White-Garland Syndrome?

Go To Double

Quizitor

Syndromes

Answer

1000


Preventative medicine 200q

Preventative Medicine 200Q

According to the U.S. Preventive Service Task Force (USPSTF), screening mammography with or without a clinical breast exam should be started when and how frequent?

PM

200

Question


Preventative medicine 200a

Preventative Medicine 200A

According to the USPSTF, screening mammography, with or without a clinical breast exam should be done every 1-2 years for women age 40 and older.

Go To Double

Quizitor

PM

200

Answer


Preventative medicine 400q

Preventative Medicine 400Q

Give the American Society for Gastrointestinal Endoscopy (ASGE) guideline for colonscopy screening in a patient with HNPCC.

PM

400

Question


Preventative medicine 400a

Preventative Medicine 400A

According to the ASGE, screening for patients with HNPCC includes:

Colonoscopy every 1-2 years beginning at age 20-25 years or 10 years younger than the earliest age of diagnosis of colorectal cancer in the family, which ever is earlier. Annual colonoscopy should be performed after age 40.

Go To Double

Quizitor

PM

400

Answer


Preventative medicine 600q

Preventative Medicine 600Q

What is the recommendation for bacterial endocarditis prophylaxis for a man with aortic stenosis having an EGD.

PM

600

Question


Preventative medicine 600a

Preventative Medicine 600A

No Prophylaxis Needed.

Go To Double

Quizitor

PM

Answer

600


Preventative medicine 800q

Preventative Medicine 800Q

According to the Public Health Service Task Force, what is the recommendation for an HIV+ pregnant female who is to undergo a cesarian section?

PM

800

Question


Preventative medicine 800a

Preventative Medicine 800A

For an HIV+ pregnant female undergoing a cesarian section, she should receive continuous Zidovudine (ZDV) infusion beginning 3 hours before surgery, and her infant should receive 6 weeks of ZDV therapy after birth.

Go To Double

Quizitor

PM

Answer

800


Preventative medicine 1000q

Preventative Medicine 1000Q

The American Cancer Society (ACS) recommends that doctors offer total PSA tests and DRE annually to all men beginning when?

PM

1000

Question


Preventative medicine 1000a

Preventative Medicine 1000A

  • The ACS recommends:

  • Age >50 years

  • 2. Age > 40 or 45 to high risk populations, such as african american males or those with family history.

Go To Double

Quizitor

PM

Answer

1000


Date

Calculator Brain 200Q

Define Positive Likelihood Ratio.

CB

200

Question


Calculator brain 200a

Calculator Brain 200A

Positive Likelihood Ratio= sensitivity/(1-specificity)

Probability of an individual with the condition having a positive test

Probability of an individual without the condition having a positive test

Go To Double

Quizitor

CB

Answer

200


Date

Calculator Brain 400Q

Give the formula for the calculation of LDL Cholesterol

CB

400

Question


Calculator brain 400a

Calculator Brain 400A

LDLC(mmol/L)=

Total Cholesterol-HDL Cholesterol – (Triglycerides/2.2)

Go To Double

Quizitor

CB

Answer

400


Date

Calculator Brain 600Q

How do you calculate correction factor for insulin therapy.

CB

600

Question


Calculator brain 600a

Calculator Brain 600A

Correction Factor = 1700/TDD

TDD = Total Daily Dose of Insulin

Go To Double

Quizitor

CB

Answer

600


Calculator brain 800q

Calculator Brain 800Q

Give the formula for calculating Dynamic Lung Compliance in a mechanically ventilated patient?

CB

800

Question


Calculator brain 800a

Calculator Brain 800A

C dyn = Tidal Volume/ (Peak Airway Pressure-PEEP)

Go To Double

Quizitor

CB

Answer

800


Date

Calculator Brain 1000Q

Define the Duke Prognostic Treadmill Risk Score

CB

1000

Question


Calculator brain 1000a

Calculator Brain 1000A

Duke Prognostic Treadmill Score =

Exercise time (minutes based on the Bruce Protocol)-

(5 x Maximum ST segment deviation in mm)-

(4 x angina risk score)

[0=none, 1=nonlimiting, and 2=exercise training]

Go To Double

Quizitor

CB

Answer

1000


In the news 200q

In The News 200Q

This current outbreak of food borne infection due to this organism has been traced back to Spinach from Natural Selection Foods of San Juan Bautista, California.

Question

ITN

200


In the news 200a

In The News 200A

What is E. coli 0157:H7?

Go To Double

Quizitor

Answer

ITN

200


Date

In The News 400Q

This herbal extract, commonly taken to improve urinary symptoms in men with enlargement of the prostate gland, is no more effective than placebo, according to a study published in February 2006.

ITN

400

Question


In the news 400a

In The News 400A

What is Saw Palmetto?

Go To Double

Quizitor

ITN

400

Answer


Date

In The News 600Q

This non-infectious recombinant, quadrivalent vaccine has been recently approved by the FDA in women 9-26 to prevent certain types of cervical cancer.

Question

ITN

600


In the news 600a

In The News 600A

What is Gardasil?

Go To Double

Quizitor

Answer

ITN

600


In the news 800q

In The News 800Q

On December 2, 2006, Pfizer suspended a clinical trial of this Cholesteryl Ester transfer protein (CETP) inhibitor due to increased mortality seen in Phase III trials. Name this drug.

ITN

800

Question


In the news 800a

In The News 800A

What is Torceptrapib?

Go To Double

Quizitor

Answer

ITN

800


In the news 1000q

In The News 1000Q

This epidemic of a childhood infection was the cause of more than 600 deaths in the Midwest in 2006.

Question

ITN

1000


In the news 1000a

In The News 1000A

What is Mumps?

Go To Double

Quizitor

Answer

ITN

1000


Date

General Internal Medicine 200Q

Two interventions that have shown benefit in improving symptoms of Chronic Fatigue Syndrome.

Question

GIM

200


General internal medicine 200a

General Internal Medicine 200A

What are Cognitive Behavioral Therapy and Graded Exercise?

Go To Double

Quizitor

Answer

GIM

200


General internal medicine 400q

General Internal Medicine 400Q

Name three of the eight indications for early imaging in patients with lower back pain.

Question

GIM

400


General internal medicine 400a

General Internal Medicine 400A

Indications:

  • Major Trauma

  • Corticosteroid Use

  • Age >50 years

  • History of Cancer

  • Unexplained Weight Loss

  • Fever, Immunosuppresion, Injection Drug Use, or Active Infection

  • Saddle Anesthesia, bowel or bladder incontinence.

  • Severe or progressive neurological deficits.

Go To Double

Quizitor

GIM

400

Answer


Date

General Internal Medicine 600Q

Name the four conditions that are considered Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) “equivalent.”

Question

GIM

600


Date

General Internal Medicine 600Q

  • What are:

  • Diabetes Mellitus

  • Peripheral Vascular Disease

  • Symptomatic Carotid Artery Disease

  • Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

Go To Double

Quizitor

Answer

GIM

600


Date

General Internal Medicine 800Q

Name four reversible causes of urinary incontinence.

Question

GIM

800


General internal medicine 800a

General Internal Medicine 800A

What are:

D=Dementia

I=Infection of the Urinary Tract

A=Atrophic Urethritis/Vaginitis

P=Pharmaceuticals

P=Psychologic Disorders

E=Excessive Urine Output (CHF or Hyperglycemia Induced)

R=Restricted Mobility

S=Stool Impaction

Go To Double

Quizitor

Answer

GIM

800


General internal medicine 1000q

General Internal Medicine 1000Q

Name the five “A’s” in the strategy for smoking cessation.

Question

GIM

1000


Date

General Internal Medicine 1000A

  • The Five A’s:

  • Ask (Identify the tobacco users at every visit)

  • Advise (Strongly urge them to quit)

  • Assess (Determine the patients willingness to attempt to quit)

  • Assist (Aid the patient in quiting)

  • Arrange (Schedule for follow-up visits)

Go To Double

Quizitor

Answer

GIM

1000


Final quizitor

FINAL QUIZITOR

Pulmonology


Final quizitor1

FINAL QUIZITOR

This rare form of interstitial lung disease is seen in patients with Sjogren’s Syndrome and HIV.


Final quizitor2

FINAL QUIZITOR

What is Lymphoid Interstitial Pneumonia (LIP)?


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