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Review: Chapters 12, 14, and HIV

Review: Chapters 12, 14, and HIV. Blood. Blood. The total blood volume in an average adult is about: a. 8 liters/17 pints b. one liter/~1 quart c. 5 liters/11 pints d. 10 liters/21 pints. Blood plasma is made up mostly of: a. dissolved ions b. water c. plasma proteins d. hemoglobin.

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Review: Chapters 12, 14, and HIV

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  1. Review: Chapters 12, 14, and HIV

  2. Blood Blood

  3. The total blood volume in an average adult is about: a. 8 liters/17 pints b. one liter/~1 quart c. 5 liters/11 pints d. 10 liters/21 pints

  4. Blood plasma is made up mostly of: a. dissolved ions b. water c. plasma proteins d. hemoglobin

  5. How long do erythrocytes (red blood cells) normally stay in circulation? a. 10 days b. 120 days c. one year d. one month

  6. Oxygen is transported by red blood cells by binding to: a. specific receptors on the plasma membrane b. the iron ion in the heme portion of hemoglobin c. specific receptors on the nucleus of the red blood cell d. attaching to the ABO antigen

  7. The function of hemoglobin is to: a. protect the DNA of erythrocytes b. produce red blood cells c. produce antibodies d. carry oxygen

  8. The formed elements that are fragments of larger cells called megakaryocytes are: a. neutrophils b. lymphocytes c. erythrocytes d. thrombocytes = platelets

  9. Platelets initially stick to the wall of a damaged blood vessel because: a. exposed collagen fibers make a rough surface to which the platelets are attracted b. histamine causes vasoconstriction so that the platelets can’t fit through the opening c. fibrin threads act like glue to hold them there d. the intracellular fluid is released by damaged cells in the blood vessel has a higher viscosity than plasma

  10. ABO Blood groups and transfusions

  11. ABO blood groups

  12. Know and understand the difference between an: Antigen: protein found on a cell Antibody: protein in the plasma Antibodies attach to the antigens and cause agglutination (clumping). &

  13. Transfusion information: know and understand why/why not some mixes are safe and others are not.

  14. A person’s ABO blood type is determined by antigens present on the: a. Erythrocytes (red blood cells) b. Platelets (thrombocytes) c. Leukocytes (white blood cells) d. blood vessels walls

  15. Which of the following would be TRUE for a person with type B blood? a. He theoretically could donate to a type O person. b. His own plasma contains anti-B antibodies. c. He must be Rh positive. d. He theoretically could donate blood to a type AB person.

  16. Which of the following would be TRUE for a normal person with anti-A antibodies circulating in his blood? a. He could be blood type A. b. He could be blood type B. c. He could be blood AB. d. He could be either type B or AB.

  17. Type O is considered the theoretical universal: a. recipient because there are no A or B antigens on the red blood cell b. donor because there are no A or B antigens on the red blood cell c. recipient because there are no anti-A or anti-B antibodies in plasma d. donor because there are no anti-A or anti-B antibodies in plasma

  18. When an Rh-negative mother becomes pregnant, when can erythroblastosis fetalis not possibly occur in the child? a. if the child is Rh-positive b. if the child is Rh-negative c. if the child is a universal donor d. if the father is Rh-positive

  19. Under which circumstances will an antigen-antibody reaction most likely occur? a. A person with type O blood is given type A blood. b. A person with type A blood is given type O blood. c. A person with type AB blood is given type O blood. d. A person with type AB blood is given type B blood.

  20. Plateletes are best defined as a. cytoplasmic fragments of cells b. lymphoid cells c. giant, multinucleated cells d. immature leukocytes

  21. Which part of the human blood is primarily responsible for transporting nutrients, hormones, and wastes? a. red blood cell b. platelet c. plasma d. white blood cell

  22. Which blood component is correctly paired with a process in which it is directly involved? a. red blood cells-bacteria destruction b. lymphocytes-antibody production c. platelets-oxygen transport d. white blood cells-clotting

  23. In humans, which of the following is produced in certain bones? a. striated muscle cells b. red blood cells c. urea d. bile

  24. White blood cells that contain heparin and histamines are the: a. neutrophils b. basophils c. lymphocytes d. eosinophils

  25. Eosinophils are most commonly elevated during: a. viral infections b. infections with parasitic worms c. bacterial infections d. chronic internal bleeding

  26. The blood clot-inhibiting substance released by basophils is called a. bilirubin b. Histamine c. Hemostasis d. heparin = allergic response = stoppage of bleeding

  27. An abnormal blood clot in a vessels is a? • Embolus • Pathogen • Thrombus • Leukocyte

  28. The Lymphatic System, Immunity, & HIV

  29. This gland shrinks with age and produces T-lymphocytes. • Spleen • Pancreas • Thymus • Thyroid

  30. This is the largest lymphatic organ; filters blood and produces red blood cells: • Spleen • Pancreas • Thymus • Thyroid

  31. An important benefit of fever is that it causes: a. increased activity of phagocytosis b. reduced blood flow to the site of infection c. activation of memory cells d. opening of active sites on antibody molecules

  32. Many bacteria that enter the circulatory system are engulfed and destroyed by a. phagocytic white cells b. platelets c. phagocytic red cells d. plasma WBC Pathogen

  33. Possibly fatal constriction of the bronchioles and a rapid drop in blood pressure are typical of: a. anaphylactic shock b. phagocytosis when it occurs too rapidly c. overproduction of memory B cells d. delayed immune response

  34. You had a case of the chicken pox when you where six years old. When you were ten, your friend developed chicken pox, but you did not. This was most likely due to: a. naturally acquired active immunity b. naturally acquired passive immunity c. artificially acquired active immunity d. artificially acquired passive immunity

  35. Receiving an immunization with an altered form of the tetanus toxin results in: a. naturally acquired active immunity b. naturally acquired passive immunity c. artificially acquired active immunity d. artificially acquired passive immunity

  36. T cell and B cells are: a. phagocytes b. antibodies c. lymphocytes d. both phagocytes and lymphocytes

  37. Heat as a sign of inflammation results primarily from: a. alteration of the thermoregulatory centers in the hypothalamus b. vasoconstriction in the skin, preventing heat loss c. increased blood flow, which brings in more heat to the area d. none of the above More blood= more WBC (macrophages)

  38. Plasma cells are a form of: a. helper T cell (lymphocyte) b. B cell (lymphocyte) c. killer T cell d. macrophage

  39. Antibodies are produce by: a. macrophages b. plasma cells c. neutrophils d. killer T-cells

  40. The body reacts against its own cells in a. tolerance b. autoimmunity c. immunity d. awareness Auto = self

  41. Which substances produced in the body are directly responsible for the rejection of a transplanted organ? a. histamines b. excretions c. antibodies d. antigens Your antibodies do not recognize the antigens on the transplanted tissue.

  42. In some individuals, substances such as pollen, mold, dust, or animal hair may cause an allergic reaction response by stimulating the releases of a. urea b. thyroxin c. glycogen d. histamines

  43. T-lymphocytes are responsible for a. cell-mediated immunity b. antibody-mediated immunity c. programming macrophages d. producing antibodies

  44. A normal immune response requires the presence of a. T-cells only b. neither T- nor B- cells c. both T- and B- cells d. B-cells only

  45. HIV

  46. The human immunodeficiency virus primarily infects: a. plasma cells b. helper T cells c. killer T cells d. red blood cells

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